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Artin|exercise_2_2_9
Let $H$ be the subgroup generated by two elements $a, b$ of a group $G$. Prove that if $a b=b a$, then $H$ is an abelian group.
\begin{proof} Since $a$ and $b$ commute, for any $g, h\in H$ we can write $g=a^ib^j$ and $h = a^kb^l$. Then $gh = a^ib^ja^kb^l = a^kb^la^ib^j = hg$. Thus $H$ is abelian. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_2_9 {G : Type*} [Group G] {a b : G} (h : a * b = b * a) : βˆ€ x y : closure {x | x = a ∨ x = b}, x*y = y*x :=
Artin|exercise_2_4_19
Prove that if a group contains exactly one element of order 2 , then that element is in the center of the group.
\begin{proof} Let $x$ be the element of order two. Consider the element $z=y^{-1} x y$, we have: $z^2=\left(y^{-1} x y\right)^2=\left(y^{-1} x y\right)\left(y^{-1} x y\right)=e$. So: $z=x$, and $y^{-1} x y=x$. So: $x y=y x$. So: $x$ is in the center of $G$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_4_19 {G : Type*} [Group G] {x : G} (hx : orderOf x = 2) (hx1 : βˆ€ y, orderOf y = 2 β†’ y = x) : x ∈ center G :=
Artin|exercise_2_11_3
Prove that a group of even order contains an element of order $2 .$
\begin{proof} Pair up if possible each element of $G$ with its inverse, and observe that $$ g^2 \neq e \Longleftrightarrow g \neq g^{-1} \Longleftrightarrow \text { there exists the pair }\left(g, g^{-1}\right) $$ Now, there is one element that has no pairing: the unit $e$ (since indeed $e=e^{-1} \Longleftrightarrow e^2=e$ ), so since the number of elements of $G$ is even there must be at least one element more, say $e \neq a \in G$, without a pairing, and thus $a=a^{-1} \Longleftrightarrow a^2=e$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_11_3 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : Even (card G)) : βˆƒ x : G, orderOf x = 2 :=
Artin|exercise_3_5_6
Let $V$ be a vector space which is spanned by a countably infinite set. Prove that every linearly independent subset of $V$ is finite or countably infinite.
\begin{proof} Let $A$ be the countable generating set, and let $U$ be an uncountable linearly independent set. It can be extended to a basis $B$ of the whole space. Now consider the subset $C$ of elements of $B$ that appear in the $B$-decompositions of elements of $A$. Since only finitely many elements are involved in the decomposition of each element of $A$, the set $C$ is countable. But $C$ also clearly generates the vector space $V$. This contradicts the fact that it is a proper subset of the basis $B$ (since $B$ is uncountable). \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_5_6 {K V : Type*} [Field K] [AddCommGroup V] [Module K V] {S : Set V} (hS : Set.Countable S) (hS1 : span K S = ⊀) {ΞΉ : Type*} (R : ΞΉ β†’ V) (hR : LinearIndependent K R) : Countable ΞΉ :=
Artin|exercise_6_1_14
Let $Z$ be the center of a group $G$. Prove that if $G / Z$ is a cyclic group, then $G$ is abelian and hence $G=Z$.
\begin{proof} We have that $G / Z(G)$ is cyclic, and so there is an element $x \in G$ such that $G / Z(G)=\langle x Z(G)\rangle$, where $x Z(G)$ is the coset with representative $x$. Now let $g \in G$ We know that $g Z(G)=(x Z(G))^m$ for some $m$, and by definition $(x Z(G))^m=x^m Z(G)$. Now, in general, if $H \leq G$, we have by definition too that $a H=b H$ if and only if $b^{-1} a \in H$. In our case, we have that $g Z(G)=x^m Z(G)$, and this happens if and only if $\left(x^m\right)^{-1} g \in Z(G)$. Then, there's a $z \in Z(G)$ such that $\left(x^m\right)^{-1} g=z$, and so $g=x^m z$. $g, h \in G$ implies that $g=x^{a_1} z_1$ and $h=x^{a_2} z_2$, so $$ \begin{aligned} g h & =\left(x^{a_1} z_1\right)\left(x^{a_2} z_2\right) \\ & =x^{a_1} x^{a_2} z_1 z_2 \\ & =x^{a_1+a_2} z_2 z_1 \\ & =\ldots=\left(x^{a_2} z_2\right)\left(x^{a_1} z_1\right)=h g . \end{aligned} $$ Therefore, $G$ is abelian. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_1_14 (G : Type*) [Group G] (hG : IsCyclic $ G ⧸ (center G)) : center G = ⊀ :=
Artin|exercise_6_4_3
Prove that no group of order $p^2 q$, where $p$ and $q$ are prime, is simple.
\begin{proof} We may as well assume $p<q$. The number of Sylow $q$-subgroups is $1 \bmod q$ and divides $p^2$. So it is $1, p$, or $p^2$. We win if it's 1 and it can't be $p$, so suppose it's $p^2$. But now $q \mid p^2-1$, so $q \mid p+1$ or $q \mid p-1$. Thus $p=2$ and $q=3$. But we know no group of order 36 is simple. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_4_3 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] {p q : β„•} (hp : Prime p) (hq : Prime q) (hG : card G = p^2 *q) : IsSimpleGroup G β†’ false :=
Artin|exercise_6_8_1
Prove that two elements $a, b$ of a group generate the same subgroup as $b a b^2, b a b^3$.
\begin{proof} Let $H = \langle bab^2, bab^3\rangle$. It is clear that $H\subset \langle a, b\rangle$. Note that $(bab^2)^{-1}(bab^3)=b$, therefore $b\in H$. This then implies that $b^{-1}(bab^2)b^{-2}=a\in H$. Thus $\langle a, b\rangle\subset H$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_8_1 {G : Type*} [Group G] (a b : G) : closure ({a, b} : Set G) = Subgroup.closure {b*a*b^2, b*a*b^3} :=
Artin|exercise_10_2_4
Prove that in the ring $\mathbb{Z}[x],(2) \cap(x)=(2 x)$.
\begin{proof} Let $f(x) \in(2 x)$. Then there exists some polynomial $g(x) \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $$ f(x)=2 x g(x) $$ But this means that $f(x) \in(2)$ (because $x g(x)$ is a polynomial), and $f(x) \in$ $(x)$ (because $2 g(x)$ is a polynomial). Thus, $f(x) \in(2) \cap(x)$, and $$ (2 x) \subseteq(2) \cap(x) $$ On the other hand, let $p(x) \in(2) \cap(x)$. Since $p(x) \in(2)$, there exists some polynomial $h(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$ such that $$ p(x)=2 h(x) $$ Furthermore, $p(x) \in(x)$, so $$ p(x)=x h_2(x) $$ So, $2 h(x)=x h_2(x)$, for some $h_2(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$. This means that $h(0)=0$, so $x$ divides $h(x)$; that is, $$ h(x)=x q(x) $$ for some $q(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$, and $$ p(x)=2 x q(x) $$ Thus, $p(x) \in(2 x)$, and $$ \text { (2) } \cap(x) \subseteq(2 x) $$ Finally, (2) $\cap(x)=(2 x)$, as required. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_10_2_4 : span ({2} : Set $ Polynomial β„€) βŠ“ (span {X}) = span ({2 * X} : Set $ Polynomial β„€) :=
Artin|exercise_10_4_6
Let $I, J$ be ideals in a ring $R$. Prove that the residue of any element of $I \cap J$ in $R / I J$ is nilpotent.
\begin{proof} If $x$ is in $I \cap J, x \in I$ and $x \in J . R / I J=\{r+a b: a \in I, b \in J, r \in R\}$. Then $x \in I \cap J \Rightarrow x \in I$ and $x \in J$, and so $x^2 \in I J$. Thus $$ [x]^2=\left[x^2\right]=[0] \text { in } R / I J $$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_10_4_6 {R : Type*} [CommRing R] (I J : Ideal R) (x : ↑(I βŠ“ J)) : IsNilpotent ((Ideal.Quotient.mk (I*J)) x) :=
Artin|exercise_10_7_10
Let $R$ be a ring, with $M$ an ideal of $R$. Suppose that every element of $R$ which is not in $M$ is a unit of $R$. Prove that $M$ is a maximal ideal and that moreover it is the only maximal ideal of $R$.
\begin{proof} Suppose there is an ideal $M\subset I\subset R$. If $I\neq M$, then $I$ contains a unit, thus $I=R$. Therefore $M$ is a maximal ideal. Suppose we have an arbitrary maximal ideal $M^\prime$ of $R$. The ideal $M^\prime$ cannot contain a unit, otherwise $M^\prime =R$. Therefore $M^\prime \subset M$. But we cannot have $M^\prime \subsetneq M \subsetneq R$, therefore $M=M^\prime$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_10_7_10 {R : Type*} [Ring R] (M : Ideal R) (hM : βˆ€ (x : R), x βˆ‰ M β†’ IsUnit x) (hProper : βˆƒ x : R, x βˆ‰ M) : IsMaximal M ∧ βˆ€ (N : Ideal R), IsMaximal N β†’ N = M :=
Artin|exercise_11_4_1b
Prove that $x^3 + 6x + 12$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}$.
\begin{proof} Apply Eisenstein's criterion with $p=3$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_11_4_1b : Irreducible (12 + 6 * X + X ^ 3 : Polynomial β„š) :=
Artin|exercise_11_4_6b
Prove that $x^2+1$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{F}_7$
\begin{proof} If $p(x)=x^2+1$ were reducible, its factors must be linear. But no $p(a)$ for $a\in\mathbb{F}_7$ evaluates to 0, therefore $x^2+1$ is irreducible. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_11_4_6b {F : Type*} [Field F] [Fintype F] (hF : card F = 7) : Irreducible (X ^ 2 + 1 : Polynomial F) :=
Artin|exercise_11_4_8
Let $p$ be a prime integer. Prove that the polynomial $x^n-p$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$.
\begin{proof} Straightforward application of Eisenstein's criterion with $p$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_11_4_8 (p : β„•) (hp : Prime p) (n : β„•) (hn : n > 0) : Irreducible (X ^ n - (p : Polynomial β„š) : Polynomial β„š) :=
Artin|exercise_13_4_10
Prove that if a prime integer $p$ has the form $2^r+1$, then it actually has the form $2^{2^k}+1$.
\begin{proof} In particular, we have $$ \frac{x^a+1}{x+1}=\frac{(-x)^a-1}{(-x)-1}=1-x+x^2-\cdots+(-x)^{a-1} $$ by the geometric sum formula. In this case, specialize to $x=2^{2^m}$ and we have a nontrivial divisor. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Function Fintype Subgroup Ideal Polynomial Submodule Zsqrtd open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_13_4_10 {p : β„•} {hp : Nat.Prime p} (h : βˆƒ r : β„•, p = 2 ^ r + 1) : βˆƒ (k : β„•), p = 2 ^ (2 ^ k) + 1 :=
Axler|exercise_1_3
Prove that $-(-v) = v$ for every $v \in V$.
\begin{proof} By definition, we have $$ (-v)+(-(-v))=0 \quad \text { and } \quad v+(-v)=0 . $$ This implies both $v$ and $-(-v)$ are additive inverses of $-v$, by the uniqueness of additive inverse, it follows that $-(-v)=v$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_3 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] {v : V} : -(-v) = v :=
Axler|exercise_1_6
Give an example of a nonempty subset $U$ of $\mathbf{R}^2$ such that $U$ is closed under addition and under taking additive inverses (meaning $-u \in U$ whenever $u \in U$), but $U$ is not a subspace of $\mathbf{R}^2$.
\begin{proof} \[U=\mathbb{Z}^2=\left\{(x, y) \in \mathbf{R}^2: x, y \text { are integers }\right\}\] $U=\mathbb{Z}^2$ satisfies the desired properties. To come up with this, note by assumption, $U$ must be closed under addition and subtraction, so in particular, it must contain 0 . We need to find a set which fails scalar multiplication. A discrete set like $\mathbb{Z}^2$ does this. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_6 : βˆƒ U : Set (ℝ Γ— ℝ), (U β‰  βˆ…) ∧ (βˆ€ (u v : ℝ Γ— ℝ), u ∈ U ∧ v ∈ U β†’ u + v ∈ U) ∧ (βˆ€ (u : ℝ Γ— ℝ), u ∈ U β†’ -u ∈ U) ∧ (βˆ€ U' : Submodule ℝ (ℝ Γ— ℝ), U β‰  ↑U') :=
Axler|exercise_1_8
Prove that the intersection of any collection of subspaces of $V$ is a subspace of $V$.
\begin{proof} Let $V_1, V_2, \ldots, V_n$ be subspaces of the vector space $V$ over the field $F$. We must show that their intersection $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$ is also a subspace of $V$. To begin, we observe that the additive identity $0$ of $V$ is in $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$. This is because $0$ is in each subspace $V_i$, as they are subspaces and hence contain the additive identity. Next, we show that the intersection of subspaces is closed under addition. Let $u$ and $v$ be vectors in $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$. By definition, $u$ and $v$ belong to each of the subspaces $V_i$. Since each $V_i$ is a subspace and therefore closed under addition, it follows that $u+v$ belongs to each $V_i$. Thus, $u+v$ belongs to the intersection $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$. Finally, we show that the intersection of subspaces is closed under scalar multiplication. Let $a$ be a scalar in $F$ and let $v$ be a vector in $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$. Since $v$ belongs to each $V_i$, we have $av$ belongs to each $V_i$ as well, as $V_i$ are subspaces and hence closed under scalar multiplication. Therefore, $av$ belongs to the intersection $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$. Thus, we have shown that $V_1 \cap V_2 \cap \ldots \cap V_n$ is a subspace of $V$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_8 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] {ΞΉ : Type*} (u : ΞΉ β†’ Submodule F V) : βˆƒ U : Submodule F V, (β‹‚ (i : ΞΉ), (u i).carrier) = ↑U :=
Axler|exercise_3_1
Show that every linear map from a one-dimensional vector space to itself is multiplication by some scalar. More precisely, prove that if $\operatorname{dim} V=1$ and $T \in \mathcal{L}(V, V)$, then there exists $a \in \mathbf{F}$ such that $T v=a v$ for all $v \in V$.
\begin{proof} If $\operatorname{dim} V=1$, then in fact, $V=\mathbf{F}$ and it is spanned by $1 \in \mathbf{F}$. Let $T$ be a linear map from $V$ to itself. Let $T(1)=\lambda \in V(=\mathbf{F})$. Step 2 2 of 3 Every $v \in V$ is a scalar. Therefore, $$ \begin{aligned} T(v) & =T(v \cdot 1) \\ & =v T(1) \ldots .(\text { By the linearity of } T) \\ & =v \lambda \end{aligned} $$ Hence, $T v=\lambda v$ for every $v \in V$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_1 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] [FiniteDimensional F V] (T : V β†’β‚—[F] V) (hT : finrank F V = 1) : βˆƒ c : F, βˆ€ v : V, T v = c β€’ v:=
Axler|exercise_4_4
Suppose $p \in \mathcal{P}(\mathbf{C})$ has degree $m$. Prove that $p$ has $m$ distinct roots if and only if $p$ and its derivative $p^{\prime}$ have no roots in common.
\begin{proof} First, let $p$ have $m$ distinct roots. Since $p$ has the degree of $m$, then this could imply that $p$ can be actually written in the form of $p(z)=c\left(z-\lambda_1\right) \ldots\left(z-\lambda_m\right)$, which you have $\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_m$ being distinct. To prove that both $p$ and $p^{\prime}$ have no roots in commons, we must now show that $p^{\prime}\left(\lambda_j\right) \neq 0$ for every $j$. So, to do so, just fix $j$. The previous expression for $p$ shows that we can now write $p$ in the form of $p(z)=\left(z-\lambda_j\right) q(z)$, which $q$ is a polynomial such that $q\left(\lambda_j\right) \neq 0$. When you differentiate both sides of the previous equation, then you would then have $p^{\prime}(z)=(z-$ $\left.\lambda_j\right) q^{\prime}(z)+q(z)$ Therefore: $\left.=p^{\prime}\left(\lambda_j\right)=q \lambda_j\right)$ Equals: $p^{\prime}\left(\lambda_j\right) \neq 0$ Now, to prove the other direction, we would now prove the contrapositive, which means that we will be proving that if $p$ has actually less than $m$ distinct roots, then both $p$ and $p^{\prime}$ have at least one root in common. Now, for some root of $\lambda$ of $p$, we can write $p$ is in the form of $\left.p(z)=(z-\lambda)^n q(z)\right)$, which is where both $n \geq 2$ and $q$ is a polynomial. When differentiating both sides of the previous equations, we would then have $p^{\prime}(z)=(z-\lambda)^n q^{\prime}(z)+n(z-\lambda)^{n-1} q(z)$. Therefore, $p^{\prime}(\lambda)=0$, which would make $\lambda$ is a common root of both $p$ and $p^{\prime}$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_4 (p : Polynomial β„‚) : p.degree = @card (rootSet p β„‚) (rootSetFintype p β„‚) ↔ Disjoint (@card (rootSet (derivative p) β„‚) (rootSetFintype (derivative p) β„‚)) (@card (rootSet p β„‚) (rootSetFintype p β„‚)) :=
Axler|exercise_5_4
Suppose that $S, T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ are such that $S T=T S$. Prove that $\operatorname{null} (T-\lambda I)$ is invariant under $S$ for every $\lambda \in \mathbf{F}$.
\begin{proof} First off, fix $\lambda \in F$. Secondly, let $v \in \operatorname{null}(T-\lambda I)$. If so, then $(T-\lambda I)(S v)=T S v-\lambda S v=$ $S T v-\lambda S v=S(T v-\lambda v)=0$. Therefore, $S v \in \operatorname{null}(T-\lambda I)$ since $n u l l(T-\lambda I)$ is actually invariant under $S$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_4 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] (S T : V β†’β‚—[F] V) (hST : S ∘ T = T ∘ S) (c : F): Submodule.map S (ker (T - c β€’ LinearMap.id)) = ker (T - c β€’ LinearMap.id) :=
Axler|exercise_5_12
Suppose $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ is such that every vector in $V$ is an eigenvector of $T$. Prove that $T$ is a scalar multiple of the identity operator.
\begin{proof} For every single $v \in V$, there does exist $a_v \in F$ such that $T v=a_v v$. Since $T 0=0$, then we have to make $a_0$ be the any number in F. However, for every single $v \in V\{0\}$, then the value of $a_V$ is uniquely determined by the previous equation of $T v=a_v v$. Now, to show that $T$ is a scalar multiple of the identity, then me must show that $a_v$ is independent of $v$ for $v \in V\{0\}$. We would now want to show that $a_v=a_w$. First, just make the case of where $(v, w)$ is linearly dependent. Then, there does exist $b \in F$ such that $w=b v$. Now, you would have the following: $a_W w=T w=T(b v)=b T v=b\left(a_v v\right)=a_v w$. This is showing that $a_v=a_w$. Finally, make the consideration to make $(v, w)$ be linearly independent. Now, we would have the following: $\left.a_{(} v+w\right)(v+w)=T(v+w)=T v+T w=a_v v+a_w w$. That previous equation implies the following: $\left.\left.\left(a_{(} v+w\right)-a_v\right) v+\left(a_{(} v+w\right)-a_w\right) w=0$. Since $(v, w)$ is linearly independent, this would imply that both $\left.a_{(} v+w\right)=a_v$ and $\left.a_{(} v+w\right)=a_w$. Therefore, $a_v=a_w$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_12 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] {S : End F V} (hS : βˆ€ v : V, βˆƒ c : F, v ∈ eigenspace S c) : βˆƒ c : F, S = c β€’ LinearMap.id :=
Axler|exercise_5_20
Suppose that $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ has $\operatorname{dim} V$ distinct eigenvalues and that $S \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ has the same eigenvectors as $T$ (not necessarily with the same eigenvalues). Prove that $S T=T S$.
\begin{proof} First off, let $n=\operatorname{dim} V$. so, there is a basis of $\left(v_1, \ldots, v_j\right)$ of $V$ that consist of eigenvectors of $T$. Now, let $\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_n$ be the corresponding eigenvalues, then we would have $T v_j=\lambda_1 v_j$ for every single $j$. Now, for every $v_j$ is also an eigenvector of S, so $S v_j=a_j v_j$ for some $a_j \in F$. For each $j$, we would then have $(S T) v_j=S\left(T v_j\right)=\lambda_j S v_j=a_j \lambda_j v_j$ and $(T S) v_j=T\left(S v_j\right)=a_j T v_j=a_j \lambda_j v_j$. Since both operators, which are $S T$ and $T S$, agree on a basis, then both are equal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_20 {F V : Type*} [AddCommGroup V] [Field F] [Module F V] [FiniteDimensional F V] {S T : End F V} (h1 : card (T.Eigenvalues) = finrank F V) (h2 : βˆ€ v : V, (βˆƒ c : F, v ∈ eigenspace S c) ↔ (βˆƒ c : F, v ∈ eigenspace T c)) : S * T = T * S :=
Axler|exercise_6_2
Suppose $u, v \in V$. Prove that $\langle u, v\rangle=0$ if and only if $\|u\| \leq\|u+a v\|$ for all $a \in \mathbf{F}$.
\begin{proof} First off, let us suppose that $(u, v)=0$. Now, let $a \in \mathbb{F}$. Next, $u, a v$ are orthogonal. The Pythagorean theorem thus implies that $$ \begin{aligned} \|u+a v\|^2 & =\|u\|^2+\|a v\|^2 \\ & \geq\|u\|^2 \end{aligned} $$ So, by taking the square roots, this will now give us $\|u\| \leq\|u+a v\|$. Now, to prove the implication in the other direction, we must now let $\|u\| \leq$ $\|u+a v\|$ for all $a \in \mathbb{F}$. Squaring this inequality, we get both: $$ \begin{gathered} \|u\|^2 a n d \leq\|u+a v\|^2 \\ =(u+a v, u+a v) \\ =(u, u)+(u, a v)+(a v, u)+(a v, a v) \\ =\|u\|^2+\bar{a}(u, v)+a \overline{(u, v)}+|a|^2\|v\|^2 \\ \|u\|^2+2 \Re \bar{a}(u, v)+|a|^2\|v\|^2 \end{gathered} $$ for all $a \in \mathbb{F}$. Therefore, $$ -2 \Re \bar{a}(u, v) \leq|a|^2\|v\|^2 $$ for all $a \in \mathbb{F}$. In particular, we can let $a$ equal $-t(u, v)$ for $t>0$. Substituting this value for $a$ into the inequality above gives $$ 2 t|(u, v)|^2 \leq t^2|(u, v)|^2\|v\|^2 $$ for all $t>0$. Step 4 4 of 4 Divide both sides of the inequality above by $t$, getting $$ 2|(u, v)|^2 \leq t \mid(u, v)^2\|v\|^2 $$ for all $t>0$. If $v=0$, then $(u, v)=0$, as desired. If $v \neq 0$, set $t$ equal to $1 /\|v\|^2$ in the inequality above, getting $$ 2|(u, v)|^2 \leq|(u, v)|^2, $$ which implies that $(u, v)=0$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open InnerProductSpace RCLike ContinuousLinearMap Complex open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_2 {V : Type*} [NormedAddCommGroup V] [NormedField F] [RCLike F] [Module F V] [InnerProductSpace F V] (u v : V) : βŸͺu, v⟫_F = 0 ↔ βˆ€ (a : F), β€–uβ€– ≀ β€–u + a β€’ vβ€– :=
Axler|exercise_6_7
Prove that if $V$ is a complex inner-product space, then $\langle u, v\rangle=\frac{\|u+v\|^{2}-\|u-v\|^{2}+\|u+i v\|^{2} i-\|u-i v\|^{2} i}{4}$ for all $u, v \in V$.
\begin{proof} Let $V$ be an inner-product space and $u, v\in V$. Then $$ \begin{aligned} \|u+v\|^2 & =\langle u+v, v+v\rangle \\ & =\|u\|^2+\langle u, v\rangle+\langle v, u\rangle+\|v\|^2 \\ -\|u-v\|^2 & =-\langle u-v, u-v\rangle \\ & =-\|u\|^2+\langle u, v\rangle+\langle v, u\rangle-\|v\|^2 \\ i\|u+i v\|^2 & =i\langle u+i v, u+i v\rangle \\ & =i\|u\|^2+\langle u, v\rangle-\langle v, u\rangle+i\|v\|^2 \\ -i\|u-i v\|^2 & =-i\langle u-i v, u-i v\rangle \\ & =-i\|u\|^2+\langle u, v\rangle-\langle v, u\rangle-i\|v\|^2 . \end{aligned} $$ Thus $\left(\|u+v\|^2\right)-\|u-v\|^2+\left(i\|u+i v\|^2\right)-i\|u-i v\|^2=4\langle u, v\rangle.$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open InnerProductSpace ContinuousLinearMap Complex open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_7 {V : Type*} [NormedAddCommGroup V] [InnerProductSpace β„‚ V] (u v : V) : βŸͺu, v⟫_β„‚ = (β€–u + vβ€–^2 - β€–u - vβ€–^2 + I*β€–u + Iβ€’vβ€–^2 - I*β€–u-Iβ€’vβ€–^2) / 4 :=
Axler|exercise_6_16
Suppose $U$ is a subspace of $V$. Prove that $U^{\perp}=\{0\}$ if and only if $U=V$
\begin{proof} $V=U \bigoplus U^{\perp}$, therefore $U^\perp = \{0\}$ iff $U=V$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_6_16 {K V : Type*} [RCLike K] [NormedAddCommGroup V] [InnerProductSpace K V] {U : Submodule K V} : U.orthogonal = βŠ₯ ↔ U = ⊀ :=
Axler|exercise_7_6
Prove that if $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ is normal, then $\operatorname{range} T=\operatorname{range} T^{*}.$
\begin{proof} Let $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ to be a normal operator. Suppose $u \in \operatorname{null} T$. Then, by $7.20$, $$ 0=\|T u\|=\left\|T^* u\right\|, $$ which implies that $u \in \operatorname{null} T^*$. Hence $$ \operatorname{null} T=\operatorname{null} T^* $$ because $\left(T^*\right)^*=T$ and the same argument can be repeated. Now we have $$ \begin{aligned} \text { range } T & =\left(\text { null } T^*\right)^{\perp} \\ & =(\text { null } T)^{\perp} \\ & =\operatorname{range} T^*, \end{aligned} $$ where the first and last equality follow from items (d) and (b) of 7.7. Hence, range $T=$ range $T^*$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_6 {V : Type*} [NormedAddCommGroup V] [RCLike F] [InnerProductSpace F V] [FiniteDimensional F V] (T : End F V) (hT : T * adjoint T = adjoint T * T) : range T = range (adjoint T) :=
Axler|exercise_7_10
Suppose $V$ is a complex inner-product space and $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ is a normal operator such that $T^{9}=T^{8}$. Prove that $T$ is self-adjoint and $T^{2}=T$.
\begin{proof} Based on the complex spectral theorem, there is an orthonormal basis of $\left(e_1, \ldots, e_n\right)$ of $V$ consisting of eigenvectors of $T$. Now, let $\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_n$ be the corresponding eigenvalues. Therefore, $$ T e_1=\lambda_j e_j $$ for $j=1 \ldots n$. Next, by applying $T$ repeatedly to both sides of the equation above, we get $T^9 e_j=\left(\lambda_j\right)^9 e_j$ and rei =8ej. Thus $T^8 e_j=\left(\lambda_j\right)^8 e_j$, which implies that $\lambda_j$ equals 0 or 1 . In particular, all the eigenvalues of $T$ are real. This would then imply that $T$ is self-adjoint. Now, by applying $T$ to both sides of the equation above, we get $$ \begin{aligned} T^2 e_j & =\left(\lambda_j\right)^2 e_j \\ & =\lambda_j e_j \\ & =T e_j \end{aligned} $$ which is where the second equality holds because $\lambda_j$ equals 0 or 1 . Because $T^2$ and $T$ agree on a basis, they must be equal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_10 {V : Type*} [NormedAddCommGroup V] [InnerProductSpace β„‚ V] [FiniteDimensional β„‚ V] (T : End β„‚ V) (hT : T * adjoint T = adjoint T * T) (hT1 : T^9 = T^8) : IsSelfAdjoint T ∧ T^2 = T :=
Axler|exercise_7_14
Suppose $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ is self-adjoint, $\lambda \in \mathbf{F}$, and $\epsilon>0$. Prove that if there exists $v \in V$ such that $\|v\|=1$ and $\|T v-\lambda v\|<\epsilon,$ then $T$ has an eigenvalue $\lambda^{\prime}$ such that $\left|\lambda-\lambda^{\prime}\right|<\epsilon$.
\begin{proof} Let $T \in \mathcal{L}(V)$ be a self-adjoint, and let $\lambda \in \mathbf{F}$ and $\epsilon>0$. By the Spectral Theorem, there is $e_1, \ldots, e_n$ an orthonormal basis of $V$ consisting of eigenvectors of $T$ and let $\lambda_1, \ldots, \lambda_n$ denote their corresponding eigenvalues. Choose an eigenvalue $\lambda^{\prime}$ of $T$ such that $\left|\lambda^{\prime}-\lambda\right|^2$ is minimized. There are $a_1, \ldots, a_n \in \mathbb{F}$ such that $$ v=a_1 e_1+\cdots+a_n e_n . $$ Thus, we have $$ \begin{aligned} \epsilon^2 & >|| T v-\left.\lambda v\right|^2 \\ & =\left|\left\langle T v-\lambda v, e_1\right\rangle\right|^2+\cdots+\left|\left\langle T v-\lambda v, e_n\right\rangle\right|^2 \\ & =\left|\lambda_1 a_1-\lambda a_1\right|^2+\cdots+\left|\lambda_n a_n-\lambda a_n\right|^2 \\ & =\left|a_1\right|^2\left|\lambda_1-\lambda\right|^2+\cdots+\left|a_n\right|^2\left|\lambda_n-\lambda\right|^2 \\ & \geq\left|a_1\right|^2\left|\lambda^{\prime}-\lambda\right|^2+\cdots+\left|a_n\right|^2\left|\lambda^{\prime}-\lambda\right|^2 \\ & =\left|\lambda^{\prime}-\lambda\right|^2 \end{aligned} $$ where the second and fifth lines follow from $6.30$ (the fifth because $\|v\|=1$ ). Now, we taking the square root. Hence, $T$ has an eigenvalue $\lambda^{\prime}$ such that $\left|\lambda^{\prime}-\lambda\right|<\epsilon$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Complex Polynomial LinearMap FiniteDimensional Module Module.End open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_14 {π•œ V : Type*} [RCLike π•œ] [NormedAddCommGroup V] [InnerProductSpace π•œ V] [FiniteDimensional π•œ V] {T : Module.End π•œ V} (hT : IsSelfAdjoint T) {l : π•œ} {Ξ΅ : ℝ} (he : Ξ΅ > 0) : (βˆƒ v : V, β€–vβ€–= 1 ∧ β€–T v - l β€’ vβ€– < Ξ΅) β†’ (βˆƒ l' : T.Eigenvalues, β€–l - l'β€– < Ξ΅) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_3
Prove that the addition of residue classes $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ is associative.
\begin{proof} We have $$ \begin{aligned} (\bar{a}+\bar{b})+\bar{c} &=\overline{a+b}+\bar{c} \\ &=\overline{(a+b)+c} \\ &=\overline{a+(b+c)} \\ &=\bar{a}+\overline{b+c} \\ &=\bar{a}+(\bar{b}+\bar{c}) \end{aligned} $$ since integer addition is associative. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_3 (n : β„•) : βˆ€ (x y z : ZMod n), (x + y) + z = x + (y + z) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_5
Prove that for all $n>1$ that $\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$ is not a group under multiplication of residue classes.
\begin{proof} Note that since $n>1, \overline{1} \neq \overline{0}$. Now suppose $\mathbb{Z} /(n)$ contains a multiplicative identity element $\bar{e}$. Then in particular, $$ \bar{e} \cdot \overline{1}=\overline{1} $$ so that $\bar{e}=\overline{1}$. Note, however, that $$ \overline{0} \cdot \bar{k}=\overline{0} $$ for all k, so that $\overline{0}$ does not have a multiplicative inverse. Hence $\mathbb{Z} /(n)$ is not a group under multiplication. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_5 (n : β„•) (hn : 1 < n) : IsEmpty (Group (ZMod n)) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_16
Let $x$ be an element of $G$. Prove that $x^2=1$ if and only if $|x|$ is either $1$ or $2$.
\begin{proof} $(\Rightarrow)$ Suppose $x^2=1$. Then we have $0<|x| \leq 2$, i.e., $|x|$ is either 1 or 2 . ( $\Leftarrow$ ) If $|x|=1$, then we have $x=1$ so that $x^2=1$. If $|x|=2$ then $x^2=1$ by definition. So if $|x|$ is 1 or 2 , we have $x^2=1$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_16 {G : Type*} [Group G] (x : G) : x ^ 2 = 1 ↔ (orderOf x = 1 ∨ orderOf x = 2) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_18
Let $x$ and $y$ be elements of $G$. Prove that $xy=yx$ if and only if $y^{-1}xy=x$ if and only if $x^{-1}y^{-1}xy=1$.
\begin{proof} If $x y=y x$, then $y^{-1} x y=y^{-1} y x=1 x=x$. Multiplying by $x^{-1}$ then gives $x^{-1} y^{-1} x y=1$. On the other hand, if $x^{-1} y^{-1} x y=1$, then we may multiply on the left by $x$ to get $y^{-1} x y=x$. Then multiplying on the left by $y$ gives $x y=y x$ as desired. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_18 {G : Type*} [Group G] (x y : G) : (x * y = y * x ↔ y⁻¹ * x * y = x) ∧ (y⁻¹ * x * y = x ↔ x⁻¹ * y⁻¹ * x * y = 1) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_22a
If $x$ and $g$ are elements of the group $G$, prove that $|x|=\left|g^{-1} x g\right|$.
\begin{proof} First we prove a technical lemma: {\bf Lemma.} For all $a, b \in G$ and $n \in \mathbb{Z},\left(b^{-1} a b\right)^n=b^{-1} a^n b$. The statement is clear for $n=0$. We prove the case $n>0$ by induction; the base case $n=1$ is clear. Now suppose $\left(b^{-1} a b\right)^n=b^{-1} a^n b$ for some $n \geq 1$; then $$ \left(b^{-1} a b\right)^{n+1}=\left(b^{-1} a b\right)\left(b^{-1} a b\right)^n=b^{-1} a b b^{-1} a^n b=b^{-1} a^{n+1} b . $$ By induction the statement holds for all positive $n$. Now suppose $n<0$; we have $$ \left(b^{-1} a b\right)^n=\left(\left(b^{-1} a b\right)^{-n}\right)^{-1}=\left(b^{-1} a^{-n} b\right)^{-1}=b^{-1} a^n b . $$ Hence, the statement holds for all integers $n$. Now to the main result. Suppose first that $|x|$ is infinity and that $\left|g^{-1} x g\right|=n$ for some positive integer $n$. Then we have $$ \left(g^{-1} x g\right)^n=g^{-1} x^n g=1, $$ and multiplying on the left by $g$ and on the right by $g^{-1}$ gives us that $x^n=1$, a contradiction. Thus if $|x|$ is infinity, so is $\left|g^{-1} x g\right|$. Similarly, if $\left|g^{-1} x g\right|$ is infinite and $|x|=n$, we have $$ \left(g^{-1} x g\right)^n=g^{-1} x^n g=g^{-1} g=1, $$ a contradiction. Hence if $\left|g^{-1} x g\right|$ is infinite, so is $|x|$. Suppose now that $|x|=n$ and $\left|g^{-1} x g\right|=m$ for some positive integers $n$ and $m$. We have $$ \left(g^{-1} x g\right)^n=g^{-1} x^n g=g^{-1} g=1, $$ So that $m \leq n$, and $$ \left(g^{-1} x g\right)^m=g^{-1} x^m g=1, $$ so that $x^m=1$ and $n \leq m$. Thus $n=m$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_22a {G : Type*} [Group G] (x g : G) : orderOf x = orderOf (g⁻¹ * x * g) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_25
Prove that if $x^{2}=1$ for all $x \in G$ then $G$ is abelian.
\begin{proof} Solution: Note that since $x^2=1$ for all $x \in G$, we have $x^{-1}=x$. Now let $a, b \in G$. We have $$ a b=(a b)^{-1}=b^{-1} a^{-1}=b a . $$ Thus $G$ is abelian. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_25 {G : Type*} [Group G] (h : βˆ€ x : G, x ^ 2 = 1) : βˆ€ a b : G, a*b = b*a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_1_34
If $x$ is an element of infinite order in $G$, prove that the elements $x^{n}, n \in \mathbb{Z}$ are all distinct.
\begin{proof} Solution: Suppose to the contrary that $x^a=x^b$ for some $0 \leq a<b \leq n-1$. Then we have $x^{b-a}=1$, with $1 \leq b-a<n$. However, recall that $n$ is by definition the least integer $k$ such that $x^k=1$, so we have a contradiction. Thus all the $x^i$, $0 \leq i \leq n-1$, are distinct. In particular, we have $$ \left\{x^i \mid 0 \leq i \leq n-1\right\} \subseteq G, $$ so that $|x|=n \leq|G|$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_1_34 {G : Type*} [Group G] {x : G} (hx_inf : orderOf x = 0) (n m : β„€) (hnm : n β‰  m) : x ^ n β‰  x ^ m :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_6_4
Prove that the multiplicative groups $\mathbb{R}-\{0\}$ and $\mathbb{C}-\{0\}$ are not isomorphic.
\begin{proof} Isomorphic groups necessarily have the same number of elements of order $n$ for all finite $n$. Now let $x \in \mathbb{R}^{\times}$. If $x=1$ then $|x|=1$, and if $x=-1$ then $|x|=2$. If (with bars denoting absolute value) $|x|<1$, then we have $$ 1>|x|>\left|x^2\right|>\cdots, $$ and in particular, $1>\left|x^n\right|$ for all $n$. So $x$ has infinite order in $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$. Similarly, if $|x|>1$ (absolute value) then $x$ has infinite order in $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$. So $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$has 1 element of order 1,1 element of order 2 , and all other elements have infinite order. In $\mathbb{C}^{\times}$, on the other hand, $i$ has order 4 . Thus $\mathbb{R}^{\times}$and $\mathbb{C}^{\times}$are not isomorphic. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_6_4 : IsEmpty (Multiplicative ℝ ≃* Multiplicative β„‚) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_1_6_17
Let $G$ be any group. Prove that the map from $G$ to itself defined by $g \mapsto g^{-1}$ is a homomorphism if and only if $G$ is abelian.
\begin{proof} $(\Rightarrow)$ Suppose $G$ is abelian. Then $$ \varphi(a b)=(a b)^{-1}=b^{-1} a^{-1}=a^{-1} b^{-1}=\varphi(a) \varphi(b), $$ so that $\varphi$ is a homomorphism. $(\Leftarrow)$ Suppose $\varphi$ is a homomorphism, and let $a, b \in G$. Then $$ a b=\left(b^{-1} a^{-1}\right)^{-1}=\varphi\left(b^{-1} a^{-1}\right)=\varphi\left(b^{-1}\right) \varphi\left(a^{-1}\right)=\left(b^{-1}\right)^{-1}\left(a^{-1}\right)^{-1}=b a, $$ so that $G$ is abelian. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_6_17 {G : Type*} [Group G] (f : G β†’ G) (hf : f = Ξ» g => g⁻¹) : (βˆ€ x y : G, f x * f y = f (x*y)) ↔ βˆ€ x y : G, x*y = y*x :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_2_1_5
Prove that $G$ cannot have a subgroup $H$ with $|H|=n-1$, where $n=|G|>2$.
\begin{proof} Solution: Under these conditions, there exists a nonidentity element $x \in H$ and an element $y \notin H$. Consider the product $x y$. If $x y \in H$, then since $x^{-1} \in H$ and $H$ is a subgroup, $y \in H$, a contradiction. If $x y \notin H$, then we have $x y=y$. Thus $x=1$, a contradiction. Thus no such subgroup exists. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_1_5 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : card G > 2) (H : Subgroup G) [Fintype H] : card H β‰  card G - 1 :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_2_4_4
Prove that if $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ then $H$ is generated by the set $H-\{1\}$.
\begin{proof} If $H=\{1\}$ then $H-\{1\}$ is the empty set which indeed generates the trivial subgroup $H$. So suppose $|H|>1$ and pick a nonidentity element $h \in H$. Since $1=h h^{-1} \in\langle H-\{1\}\rangle$ (Proposition 9), we see that $H \leq\langle H-\{1\}\rangle$. By minimality of $\langle H-\{1\}\rangle$, the reverse inclusion also holds so that $\langle H-\{1\}\rangle=$ $H$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_4_4 {G : Type*} [Group G] (H : Subgroup G) : closure ((H : Set G) \ {1}) = H :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_2_4_16b
Show that the subgroup of all rotations in a dihedral group is a maximal subgroup.
\begin{proof} Fix a positive integer $n>1$ and let $H \leq D_{2 n}$ consist of the rotations of $D_{2 n}$. That is, $H=\langle r\rangle$. Now, this subgroup is proper since it does not contain $s$. If $H$ is not maximal, then by the previous proof we know there is a maximal subset $K$ containing $H$. Then $K$ must contain a reflection $s r^k$ for $k \in\{0,1, \ldots, n-1\}$. Then since $s r^k \in K$ and $r^{n-k} \in K$, it follows by closure that $$ s=\left(s r^k\right)\left(r^{n-k}\right) \in K . $$ But $D_{2 n}=\langle r, s\rangle$, so this shows that $K=D_{2 n}$, which is a contradiction. Therefore $H$ must be maximal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_4_16b {n : β„•} {hn : n β‰  0} {R : Subgroup (DihedralGroup n)} (hR : R = Subgroup.closure {DihedralGroup.r 1}) : R β‰  ⊀ ∧ βˆ€ K : Subgroup (DihedralGroup n), R ≀ K β†’ K = R ∨ K = ⊀ :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_1_3a
Let $A$ be an abelian group and let $B$ be a subgroup of $A$. Prove that $A / B$ is abelian.
\begin{proof} Lemma: Let $G$ be a group. If $|G|=2$, then $G \cong Z_2$. Proof: Since $G=\{e a\}$ has an identity element, say $e$, we know that $e e=e, e a=a$, and $a e=a$. If $a^2=a$, we have $a=e$, a contradiction. Thus $a^2=e$. We can easily see that $G \cong Z_2$. If $A$ is abelian, every subgroup of $A$ is normal; in particular, $B$ is normal, so $A / B$ is a group. Now let $x B, y B \in A / B$. Then $$ (x B)(y B)=(x y) B=(y x) B=(y B)(x B) . $$ Hence $A / B$ is abelian. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_1_3a {A : Type*} [CommGroup A] (B : Subgroup A) : βˆ€ a b : A β§Έ B, a*b = b*a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_1_22b
Prove that the intersection of an arbitrary nonempty collection of normal subgroups of a group is a normal subgroup (do not assume the collection is countable).
\begin{proof} Let $\left\{H_i \mid i \in I\right\}$ be an arbitrary collection of normal subgroups of $G$ and consider the intersection $$ \bigcap_{i \in I} H_i $$ Take an element $a$ in the intersection and an arbitrary element $g \in G$. Then $g a g^{-1} \in H_i$ because $H_i$ is normal for any $i \in H$ By the definition of the intersection, this shows that $g a g^{-1} \in \bigcap_{i \in I} H_i$ and therefore it is a normal subgroup. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_1_22b {G : Type*} [Group G] (I : Type*) [Nonempty I] (H : I β†’ Subgroup G) (hH : βˆ€ i : I, Normal (H i)) : Normal (β¨… (i : I), H i):=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_2_11
Let $H \leq K \leq G$. Prove that $|G: H|=|G: K| \cdot|K: H|$ (do not assume $G$ is finite).
\begin{proof} Proof. Let $G$ be a group and let $I$ be a nonempty set of indices, not necessarily countable. Consider the collection of subgroups $\left\{N_\alpha \mid \alpha \in I\right\}$, where $N_\alpha \unlhd G$ for each $\alpha \in I$. Let $$ N=\bigcap_{\alpha \in I} N_\alpha . $$ We know $N$ is a subgroup of $G$. For any $g \in G$ and any $n \in N$, we must have $n \in N_\alpha$ for each $\alpha$. And since $N_\alpha \unlhd G$, we have $g n g^{-1} \in N_\alpha$ for each $\alpha$. Therefore $g n g^{-1} \in N$, which shows that $g N g^{-1} \subseteq N$ for each $g \in G$. As before, this is enough to complete the proof. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_2_11 {G : Type*} [Group G] {H K : Subgroup G} (hHK : H ≀ K) : H.index = K.index * H.relindex K :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_2_21a
Prove that $\mathbb{Q}$ has no proper subgroups of finite index.
\begin{proof} Solution: We begin with a lemma. Lemma: If $D$ is a divisible abelian group, then no proper subgroup of $D$ has finite index. Proof: We saw previously that no finite group is divisible and that every proper quotient $D / A$ of a divisible group is divisible; thus no proper quotient of a divisible group is finite. Equivalently, $[D: A]$ is not finite. Because $\mathbb{Q}$ and $\mathbb{Q} / \mathbb{Z}$ are divisible, the conclusion follows. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_2_21a (H : AddSubgroup β„š) (hH : H β‰  ⊀) : H.index = 0 :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_4_1
Prove that if $G$ is an abelian simple group then $G \cong Z_{p}$ for some prime $p$ (do not assume $G$ is a finite group).
\begin{proof} Solution: Let $G$ be an abelian simple group. Suppose $G$ is infinite. If $x \in G$ is a nonidentity element of finite order, then $\langle x\rangle<G$ is a nontrivial normal subgroup, hence $G$ is not simple. If $x \in G$ is an element of infinite order, then $\left\langle x^2\right\rangle$ is a nontrivial normal subgroup, so $G$ is not simple. Suppose $G$ is finite; say $|G|=n$. If $n$ is composite, say $n=p m$ for some prime $p$ with $m \neq 1$, then by Cauchy's Theorem $G$ contains an element $x$ of order $p$ and $\langle x\rangle$ is a nontrivial normal subgroup. Hence $G$ is not simple. Thus if $G$ is an abelian simple group, then $|G|=p$ is prime. We saw previously that the only such group up to isomorphism is $\mathbb{Z} /(p)$, so that $G \cong \mathbb{Z} /(p)$. Moreover, these groups are indeed simple. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_4_1 (G : Type*) [CommGroup G] [IsSimpleGroup G] : IsCyclic G ∧ βˆƒ G_fin : Fintype G, Nat.Prime (@card G G_fin) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_4_5a
Prove that subgroups of a solvable group are solvable.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be a solvable group and let $H \leq G$. Since $G$ is solvable, we may find a chain of subgroups $$ 1=G_0 \unlhd G_1 \unlhd G_2 \unlhd \cdots \unlhd G_n=G $$ so that each quotient $G_{i+1} / G_i$ is abelian. For each $i$, define $$ H_i=G_i \cap H, \quad 0 \leq i \leq n . $$ Then $H_i \leq H_{i+1}$ for each $i$. Moreover, if $g \in H_{i+1}$ and $x \in H_i$, then in particular $g \in G_{i+1}$ and $x \in G_i$, so that $$ g x g^{-1} \in G_i $$ because $G_i \unlhd G_{i+1}$. But $g$ and $x$ also belong to $H$, so $$ g x g^{-1} \in H_i, $$ which shows that $H_i \unlhd H_{i+1}$ for each $i$. Next, note that $$ H_i=G_i \cap H=\left(G_i \cap G_{i+1}\right) \cap H=G_i \cap H_{i+1} . $$ By the Second Isomorphism Theorem, we then have $$ H_{i+1} / H_i=H_{i+1} /\left(H_{i+1} \cap G_i\right) \cong H_{i+1} G_i / G_i \leq G_{i+1} / G_i . $$ Since $H_{i+1} / H_i$ is isomorphic to a subgroup of the abelian group $G_{i+1} / G_i$, it follows that $H_{i+1} / H_i$ is also abelian. This completes the proof that $H$ is solvable. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_4_5a {G : Type*} [Group G] (H : Subgroup G) [IsSolvable G] : IsSolvable H :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_3_4_11
Prove that if $H$ is a nontrivial normal subgroup of the solvable group $G$ then there is a nontrivial subgroup $A$ of $H$ with $A \unlhd G$ and $A$ abelian.
\begin{proof} Suppose $H$ is a nontrivial normal subgroup of the solvable group $G$. First, notice that $H$, being a subgroup of a solvable group, is itself solvable. By exercise $8, H$ has a chain of subgroups $$ 1 \leq H_1 \leq \ldots \leq H $$ such that each $H_i$ is a normal subgroup of $H$ itself and $H_{i+1} / H_i$ is abelian. But then the first group in the series $$ H_1 / 1 \cong H $$ is an abelian subgroup of $H$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_4_11 {G : Type*} [Group G] [IsSolvable G] {H : Subgroup G} (hH : H β‰  βŠ₯) [H.Normal] : βˆƒ A ≀ H, A β‰  βŠ₯ ∧ A.Normal ∧ βˆ€ a b : A, a*b = b*a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_2_14
Let $G$ be a finite group of composite order $n$ with the property that $G$ has a subgroup of order $k$ for each positive integer $k$ dividing $n$. Prove that $G$ is not simple.
\begin{proof} Solution: Let $p$ be the smallest prime dividing $n$, and write $n=p m$. Now $G$ has a subgroup $H$ of order $m$, and $H$ has index $p$. Then $H$ is normal in $G$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_2_14 {G : Type*} [Fintype G] [Group G] (hG : Β¬ (card G).Prime) (hG1 : βˆ€ k : β„•, k ∣ card G β†’ βˆƒ (H : Subgroup G) (fH : Fintype H), @card H fH = k) : Β¬ IsSimpleGroup G :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_3_26
Let $G$ be a transitive permutation group on the finite set $A$ with $|A|>1$. Show that there is some $\sigma \in G$ such that $\sigma(a) \neq a$ for all $a \in A$.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be a transitive permutation group on the finite set $A,|A|>1$. We want to find an element $\sigma$ which doesn't stabilize anything, that is, we want a $\sigma$ such that $$ \sigma \notin G_a $$ for all $a \in A$. Since the group is transitive, there is always a $g \in G$ such that $b=g \cdot a$. Let us see in what relationship the stabilizers of $a$ and $b$ are. We find $$ \begin{aligned} G_b & =\{h \in G \mid h \cdot b=b\} \\ & =\{h \in G \mid h g \cdot a=g \cdot a\} \\ & =\left\{h \in G \mid g^{-1} h g \cdot a=a\right\} \end{aligned} $$ Putting $h^{\prime}=g^{-1} h g$, we have $h=g h^{\prime} g^{-1}$ and $$ \begin{aligned} G_b & =g\left\{h^{\prime} \in H \mid h^{\prime} \cdot a=a\right\} g^{-1} \\ & =g G_a g^{-1} \end{aligned} $$ By the above, the stabilizer subgroup of any element is conjugate to some other stabilizer subgroup. Now, the stabilizer cannot be all of $G$ (else $\{a\}$ would be a orbit). Thus it is a proper subgroup of $G$. By the previous exercise, we have $$ \bigcup_{a \in A} G_a=\bigcup_{g \in G} g G_a g^{-1} \subset G $$ (the union of conjugates of a proper subgroup can never be all of $G$ ). This shows there is an element $\sigma$ which is not in any stabilizer of any element of $A$. Then $\sigma(a) \neq a$ for all $a \in A$, as we wanted to show. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_3_26 {Ξ± : Type*} [Fintype Ξ±] (ha : card Ξ± > 1) (h_tran : βˆ€ a b: Ξ±, βˆƒ Οƒ : Equiv.Perm Ξ±, Οƒ a = b) : βˆƒ Οƒ : Equiv.Perm Ξ±, βˆ€ a : Ξ±, Οƒ a β‰  a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_4_6a
Prove that characteristic subgroups are normal.
\begin{proof} Let $H$ be a characterestic subgroup of $G$. By definition $\alpha(H) \subset H$ for every $\alpha \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$. So, $H$ is in particular invariant under the inner automorphism. Let $\phi_g$ denote the conjugation automorphism by $g$. Then $\phi_g(H) \subset H \Longrightarrow$ $g H g^{-1} \subset H$. So, $H$ is normal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_4_6a {G : Type*} [Group G] (H : Subgroup G) [Characteristic H] : Normal H :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_4_7
If $H$ is the unique subgroup of a given order in a group $G$ prove $H$ is characteristic in $G$.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be group and $H$ be the unique subgroup of order $n$. Now, let $\sigma \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$. Now Clearly $|\sigma(G)|=n$, because $\sigma$ is a one-one onto map. But then as $H$ is the only subgroup of order $n$, and because of the fact that a automorphism maps subgroups to subgroups, we have $\sigma(H)=$ $H$ for every $\sigma \in \operatorname{Aut}(G)$. Hence, $H$ is a characterestic subgroup of $G$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_4_7 {G : Type*} [Group G] {H : Subgroup G} [Fintype H] (hH : βˆ€ (K : Subgroup G) (fK : Fintype K), card H = @card K fK β†’ H = K) : H.Characteristic :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_1a
Prove that if $P \in \operatorname{Syl}_{p}(G)$ and $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ containing $P$ then $P \in \operatorname{Syl}_{p}(H)$.
\begin{proof} If $P \leq H \leq G$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $G$, then $p$ does not divide $[G: P]$. Now $[G: P]=[G: H][H: P]$, so that $p$ does not divide $[H: P]$; hence $P$ is a Sylow $p$-subgroup of $H$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_1a {p : β„•} {G : Type*} [Group G] {P : Sylow p G} (H : Subgroup G) (hH : P ≀ H) : IsPGroup p (P.subgroupOf H) ∧ βˆ€ (Q : Subgroup H), IsPGroup p Q β†’ (P.subgroupOf H) ≀ Q β†’ Q = (P.subgroupOf H) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_14
Prove that a group of order 312 has a normal Sylow $p$-subgroup for some prime $p$ dividing its order.
\begin{proof} Since $|G|=351=3^{2}.13$, $G$ has $3-$Sylow subgroup of order $9$, as well as $13-$Sylow subgroup of order $13$. Now, we count the number of such subgroups. Let $n_{13}$ be the number of $13-$Sylow subgroup and $n_{3}$ be the number of $3-$Sylow subgroup. Now $n_{13}=1+13k$ where $1+13k|9$. The choices for $k$ is $0$. Hence, there is a unique $13-$Sylow subgroup and hence is normal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_14 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : card G = 312) : βˆƒ (p : β„•) (P : Sylow p G), p.Prime ∧ (p ∣ card G) ∧ P.Normal :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_16
Let $|G|=p q r$, where $p, q$ and $r$ are primes with $p<q<r$. Prove that $G$ has a normal Sylow subgroup for either $p, q$ or $r$.
\begin{proof} Let $|G|=p q r$. We also assume $p<q<r$. We prove that $G$ has a normal Sylow subgroup of $p$, $q$ or $r$. Now, Let $n_p, n_q, n_r$ be the number of Sylow-p subgroup, Sylow-q subgroup, Sylow-r subgroup resp. So, we have $n_r=1+r k$ such that $1+r k \mid p q$. So, in this case as $r$ is greatest $n_r$ can be 1 or $p q$. We assume $n_r=p q$. Now we have $n_q=1+q k$ such that $1+q k \mid p r$. Now,as $p<q<r, n_q$ can be 1 or $r$, or $p r$. Assume that $n_q=r$. Now we turn to $n_p$. Again my similar method we can conclude $n_p$ can be $1, q, r$, or $q r$. We assume that $n_p$ is $q$. Now we count the number of elements of order $p, q, r$. Since $n_r=p q$, the number of elements of order $r$ is $p q(r-1)$. Since $n_q=r$, the number of elements of order $q$ is $(q-1) r$. And as $n_p=q$, the number of elements of order $p$ is $(p-1) q$. So, in total we get $p q(r-1)+(q-1) r+(p-$ 1) $q=p q r+q r-r-q=p q r+r(q-1)-r$. But observe that as $q>1, r(q-1)-r>$ 0 . So the number of elements exceeds $p q r$. So, it proves that atleast $n_p$ or $n_q$ or $n_r$ is 1, which ultimately proves the result, because a unique Sylow-p subgroup is always normal. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_16 {p q r : β„•} {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] (hpqr : p < q ∧ q < r) (hpqr1 : p.Prime ∧ q.Prime ∧ r.Prime)(hG : card G = p*q*r) : (βˆƒ (P : Sylow p G), P.Normal) ∨ (βˆƒ (P : Sylow q G), P.Normal) ∨ (βˆƒ (P : Sylow r G), P.Normal) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_18
Prove that a group of order 200 has a normal Sylow 5-subgroup.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be a group of order $200=5^2 \cdot 8$. Note that 5 is a prime not dividing 8 . Let $P \in$ $S y l_5(G)$. [We know $P$ exists since $S y l_5(G) \neq \emptyset$ by Sylow's Theorem] The number of Sylow 5-subgroups of $G$ is of the form $1+k \cdot 5$, i.e., $n_5 \equiv 1(\bmod 5)$ and $n_5$ divides 8 . The only such number that divides 8 and equals $1 (\bmod 5)$ is 1 so $n_5=1$. Hence $P$ is the unique Sylow 5-subgroup. Since $P$ is the unique Sylow 5-subgroup, this implies that $P$ is normal in $G$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_18 {G : Type*} [Fintype G] [Group G] (hG : card G = 200) : βˆƒ N : Sylow 5 G, N.Normal :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_20
Prove that if $|G|=1365$ then $G$ is not simple.
\begin{proof} Since $|G|=1365=3.5.7.13$, $G$ has $13-$Sylow subgroup of order $13$. Now, we count the number of such subgroups. Let $n_{13}$ be the number of $13-$Sylow subgroup. Now $n_{13}=1+13k$ where $1+13k|3.5.7$. The choices for $k$ is $0$. Hence, there is a unique $13-$Sylow subgroup and hence is normal. so $G$ is not simple. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_20 {G : Type*} [Fintype G] [Group G] (hG : card G = 1365) : Β¬ IsSimpleGroup G :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_22
Prove that if $|G|=132$ then $G$ is not simple.
\begin{proof} Since $|G|=132=2^{2}.3.11$, $G$ has $2-$Sylow subgroup of order $4$, as well as $11-$Sylow subgroup of order $11$, and $3-$Sylow subgroup of order $3$. Now, we count the number of such subgroups. Let $n_{11}$ be the number of $11-$Sylow subgroup and $n_{3}$ be the number of $3-$Sylow subgroup. Now $n_{11}=1+11k$ where $1+11k|12$. The choices for $k$ are $0$ or $1$. If $k=0$, there is only one $11-$Sylow subgroup and hence normal. So, assume now, that there are $12$ $11-$Sylow subgroup(for $k=1$). Now we look at $3-$ Sylow subgroups. $n_{3}=1+3k| 44$. So choice for $k$ are $0$, $1$, and $7$. If $k=0$, there is only one $3-$Sylow subgroup and hence normal. So, assume now, that there are $4$ $2-$Sylow subgroup (for $k=3$). Now we claim that simultaneously, there cannot be $12$ $11-$Sylow subgroup and $4$ $3-$Sylow subgroups provided there is more than one $2-$Sylow subgroups. So, either $2-$Sylow subgroup is normal or if not, then, either $11-$Sylow subgroup is normal being unique, or the $3-$Sylow subgroup is normal(We don't consider the possibility of $22$ $3-$Sylow subgroup because of obvious reason). Now, to prove the claim, we observe that there are $120$ elements of order $11$. Also there are $8$ elements of order $3$. So we already get $120+8+1=129$ distinct elements in the group. Let us count the number of $2-$Sylow subgroups in $G$. $n_{2}=1+2k|33$. The possibilities for $k$ are $0$, $1$, $5$, $16$. Now, assume there is more than one $2-$Sylow subgroups. Let $H_{1}$ and $H_{2}$ be two distinct $2-$Sylow subgroup. Now $|H_{1}|=4$. So we already get $129+3=132$ distinct elements in the group. Now $H_{2}$ being distinct from $H_{1}$, has at least one element which is not in $H_{1}$. This adds one more element in the group, at the least. Now already we have number of elements in the group exceeding the number of element in $G$. This gives a contradiction and proves the claim. Hence $G$ is not simple. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_22 {G : Type*} [Fintype G] [Group G] (hG : card G = 132) : Β¬ IsSimpleGroup G :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_4_5_28
Let $G$ be a group of order 105. Prove that if a Sylow 3-subgroup of $G$ is normal then $G$ is abelian.
\begin{proof} Given that $G$ is a group of order $1575=3^2 .5^2 .7$. Now, Let $n_p$ be the number of Sylow-p subgroups. It is given that Sylow-3 subgroup is normal and hence is unique, so $n_3=1$. First we prove that both Sylow-5 subgroup and Sylow 7-subgroup are normal. Let $P$ be the Sylow3 subgroup. Now, Consider $G / P$, which has order $5^2 .7$. Now, the number of Sylow $-5$ subgroup of $G / P$ is given by $1+5 k$, where $1+5 k \mid 7$. Clearly $k=0$ is the only choice and hence there is a unique Sylow-5 subgroup of $G / P$, and hence normal. In the same way Sylow-7 subgroup of $G / P$ is also unique and hence normal. Consider now the canonical map $\pi: G \rightarrow G / P$. The inverse image of Sylow-5 subgroup of $G / P$ under $\pi$, call it $H$, is a normal subgroup of $G$, and $|H|=3^2 .5^2$. Similarly, the inverse image of Sylow-7 subgroup of $G / P$ under $\pi$ call it $K$ is also normal in $G$ and $|K|=3^2 .7$. Now, consider $H$. Observe first that the number of Sylow-5 subgroup in $H$ is $1+5 k$ such that $1+5 k \mid 9$. Again $k=0$ and hence $H$ has a unique Sylow-5 subgroup, call it $P_1$. But, it is easy to see that $P_1$ is also a Sylow-5 subgroup of $G$, because $\left|P_1\right|=25$. But now any other Sylow 5 subgroup of $G$ is of the form $g P_1 g^{-1}$ for some $g \in G$. But observe that since $P_1 \subset H$ and $H$ is normal in $G$, so $g P_1 g^1 \subset H$, and $g P_1 g^{-1}$ is also Sylow-5 subgroup of $H$. But, then as Sylow-5 subgroup of $H$ is unique we have $g P_1 g^{-1}=P_1$. This shows that Sylow-5 subgroup of $G$ is unique and hence normal in $G$. Similarly, one can argue the same for $K$ and deduce that Sylow-7 subgroup of $G$ is unique and hence normal. So, the first part of the problem is done. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_28 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : card G = 105) (P : Sylow 3 G) [hP : P.Normal] : βˆ€ a b : G, a*b = b*a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_5_4_2
Prove that a subgroup $H$ of $G$ is normal if and only if $[G, H] \leq H$.
\begin{proof} $H \unlhd G$ is equivalent to $g^{-1} h g \in H, \forall g \in G, \forall h \in H$. We claim that holds if and only if $h^{-1} g^{-1} h g \in H, \forall g \in G, \forall h \in H$, i.e., $\left\{h^{-1} g^{-1} h g: h \in H, g \in G\right\} \subseteq H$. That holds by the following argument: If $g^{-1} h g \in H, \forall g \in G, \forall h \in H$, note that $h^{-1} \in H$, so multiplying them, we also obtain an element of $H$. On the other hand, if $h^{-1} g^{-1} h g \in H, \forall g \in G, \forall h \in H$, then $$ h h^{-1} g^{-1} h g=g^{-1} h g \in H, \forall g \in G, \forall h \in H . $$ Since $\left\{h^{-1} g^{-1} h g: h \in H, g \in G\right\} \subseteq H \Leftrightarrow\left\langle\left\{h^{-1} g^{-1} h g: h \in H, g \in G\right\}\right\rangle \leq H$, we've solved the exercise by definition of $[H, G]$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_4_2 {G : Type*} [Group G] (H : Subgroup G) : H.Normal ↔ ⁅(⊀ : Subgroup G), H⁆ ≀ H :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_7_1_11
Prove that if $R$ is an integral domain and $x^{2}=1$ for some $x \in R$ then $x=\pm 1$.
\begin{proof} Solution: If $x^2=1$, then $x^2-1=0$. Evidently, then, $$ (x-1)(x+1)=0 . $$ Since $R$ is an integral domain, we must have $x-1=0$ or $x+1=0$; thus $x=1$ or $x=-1$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_1_11 {R : Type*} [CommRing R] [IsDomain R] {x : R} (hx : x^2 = 1) : x = 1 ∨ x = -1 :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_7_1_15
A ring $R$ is called a Boolean ring if $a^{2}=a$ for all $a \in R$. Prove that every Boolean ring is commutative.
\begin{proof} Solution: Note first that for all $a \in R$, $$ -a=(-a)^2=(-1)^2 a^2=a^2=a . $$ Now if $a, b \in R$, we have $$ a+b=(a+b)^2=a^2+a b+b a+b^2=a+a b+b a+b . $$ Thus $a b+b a=0$, and we have $a b=-b a$. But then $a b=b a$. Thus $R$ is commutative. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_1_15 {R : Type*} [Ring R] (hR : βˆ€ a : R, a^2 = a) : βˆ€ a b : R, a*b = b*a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_7_2_12
Let $G=\left\{g_{1}, \ldots, g_{n}\right\}$ be a finite group. Prove that the element $N=g_{1}+g_{2}+\ldots+g_{n}$ is in the center of the group ring $R G$.
\begin{proof} Let $M=\sum_{i=1}^n r_i g_i$ be an element of $R[G]$. Note that for each $g_i \in G$, the action of $g_i$ on $G$ by conjugation permutes the subscripts. Then we have the following. $$ \begin{aligned} N M &=\left(\sum_{i=1}^n g_i\right)\left(\sum_{j=1}^n r_j g_j\right) \\ &=\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n r_j g_i g_j \\ &=\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{i=1}^n r_j g_j g_j^{-1} g_i g_j \\ &=\sum_{j=1}^n r_j g_j\left(\sum_{i=1}^n g_j^{-1} g_i g_j\right) \\ &=\sum_{j=1}^n r_j g_j\left(\sum_{i=1}^n g_i\right) \\ &=\left(\sum_{j=1}^n r_j g_j\right)\left(\sum_{i=1}^n g_i\right) \\ &=M N . \end{aligned} $$ Thus $N \in Z(R[G])$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_2_12 {R G : Type*} [Ring R] [Group G] [Fintype G] : βˆ‘ g : G, MonoidAlgebra.of R G g ∈ center (MonoidAlgebra R G) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_7_3_37
An ideal $N$ is called nilpotent if $N^{n}$ is the zero ideal for some $n \geq 1$. Prove that the ideal $p \mathbb{Z} / p^{m} \mathbb{Z}$ is a nilpotent ideal in the ring $\mathbb{Z} / p^{m} \mathbb{Z}$.
\begin{proof} First we prove a lemma. Lemma: Let $R$ be a ring, and let $I_1, I_2, J \subseteq R$ be ideals such that $J \subseteq I_1, I_2$. Then $\left(I_1 / J\right)\left(I_2 / J\right)=I_1 I_2 / J$. Proof: ( $\subseteq$ ) Let $$ \alpha=\sum\left(x_i+J\right)\left(y_i+J\right) \in\left(I_1 / J\right)\left(I_2 / J\right) . $$ Then $$ \alpha=\sum\left(x_i y_i+J\right)=\left(\sum x_i y_i\right)+J \in\left(I_1 I_2\right) / J . $$ Now let $\alpha=\left(\sum x_i y_i\right)+J \in\left(I_1 I_2\right) / J$. Then $$ \alpha=\sum\left(x_i+J\right)\left(y_i+J\right) \in\left(I_1 / J\right)\left(I_2 / J\right) . $$ From this lemma and the lemma to Exercise 7.3.36, it follows by an easy induction that $$ \left(p \mathbb{Z} / p^m \mathbb{Z}\right)^m=(p \mathbb{Z})^m / p^m \mathbb{Z}=p^m \mathbb{Z} / p^m \mathbb{Z} \cong 0 . $$ Thus $p \mathbb{Z} / p^m \mathbb{Z}$ is nilpotent in $\mathbb{Z} / p^m \mathbb{Z}$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_7_3_37 {p m : β„•} (hp : p.Prime) : IsNilpotent (span ({↑p} : Set $ ZMod $ p^m) : Ideal $ ZMod $ p^m) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_8_1_12
Let $N$ be a positive integer. Let $M$ be an integer relatively prime to $N$ and let $d$ be an integer relatively prime to $\varphi(N)$, where $\varphi$ denotes Euler's $\varphi$-function. Prove that if $M_{1} \equiv M^{d} \pmod N$ then $M \equiv M_{1}^{d^{\prime}} \pmod N$ where $d^{\prime}$ is the inverse of $d \bmod \varphi(N)$: $d d^{\prime} \equiv 1 \pmod {\varphi(N)}$.
\begin{proof} Note that there is some $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $M^{d d^{\prime}} \equiv M^{k \varphi(N)+1} \equiv\left(M^{\varphi(N)}\right)^k \cdot M \bmod N$. By Euler's Theorem we have $M^{\varphi(N)} \equiv 1 \bmod N$, so that $M_1^{d^{\prime}} \equiv M \bmod N$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_8_1_12 {N : β„•} (hN : N > 0) {M M': β„€} {d : β„•} (hMN : M.gcd N = 1) (hMd : d.gcd N.totient = 1) (hM' : M' ≑ M^d [ZMOD N]) : βˆƒ d' : β„•, d' * d ≑ 1 [ZMOD N.totient] ∧ M ≑ M'^d' [ZMOD N] :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_8_3_4
Prove that if an integer is the sum of two rational squares, then it is the sum of two integer squares.
\begin{proof} Let $n=\frac{a^2}{b^2}+\frac{c^2}{d^2}$, or, equivalently, $n(b d)^2=a^2 d^2+c^2 b^2$. From this, we see that $n(b d)^2$ can be written as a sum of two squared integers. Therefore, if $q \equiv 3(\bmod 4)$ and $q^i$ appears in the prime power factorization of $n, i$ must be even. Let $j \in \mathbb{N} \cup\{0\}$ such that $q^j$ divides $b d$. Then $q^{i-2 j}$ divides $n$. But since $i$ is even, $i-2 j$ is even as well. Consequently, $n$ can be written as a sum of two squared integers. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_8_3_4 {n : β„€} {r s : β„š} (h : r^2 + s^2 = n) : βˆƒ a b : β„€, a^2 + b^2 = n :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_8_3_6a
Prove that the quotient ring $\mathbb{Z}[i] /(1+i)$ is a field of order 2.
\begin{proof} Let $a+b i \in \mathbb{Z}[i]$. If $a \equiv b \bmod 2$, then $a+b$ and $b-a$ are even and $(1+i)\left(\frac{a+b}{2}+\frac{b-a}{2} i\right)=a+b i \in\langle 1+i\rangle$. If $a \not \equiv b \bmod 2$ then $a-1+b i \in\langle 1+i\rangle$. Therefore every element of $\mathbb{Z}[i]$ is in either $\langle 1+i\rangle$ or $1+\langle 1+i\rangle$, so $\mathbb{Z}[i] /\langle 1+i\rangle$ is a finite ring of order 2 , which must be a field. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_8_3_6a {R : Type} [Ring R] (hR : R = (GaussianInt β§Έ span ({⟨1, 1⟩} : Set GaussianInt))) : IsField R ∧ βˆƒ finR : Fintype R, @card R finR = 2 :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_9_1_6
Prove that $(x, y)$ is not a principal ideal in $\mathbb{Q}[x, y]$.
\begin{proof} Suppose, to the contrary, that $(x, y)=p$ for some polynomial $p \in \mathbb{Q}[x, y]$. From $x, y \in$ $(x, y)=(p)$ there are $s, t \in \mathbb{Q}[x, y]$ such that $x=s p$ and $y=t p$. Then: $$ \begin{aligned} & 0=\operatorname{deg}_y(x)=\operatorname{deg}_y(s)+\operatorname{deg}_y(p) \text { so } \\ & 0=\operatorname{deg}_y(p) \\ & 0=\operatorname{deg}_x(y)=\operatorname{deg}_x(s)+\operatorname{deg}_x(p) \text { so } \\ & 0=\operatorname{deg}_x(p) \text { so } \end{aligned} $$ From : $\quad 0=\operatorname{deg}_y(p)=\operatorname{deg}_x(p)$ we get $\operatorname{deg}(p)=0$ and $p \in \mathbb{Q}$. But $p \in(p)=(x, y)$ so $p=a x+b y$ for some $a, b \in \mathbb{Q}[x, y]$ $$ \begin{aligned} \operatorname{deg}(p) & =\operatorname{deg}(a x+b y) \\ & =\min (\operatorname{deg}(a)+\operatorname{deg}(x), \operatorname{deg}(b)+\operatorname{deg}(y)) \\ & =\min (\operatorname{deg}(a)+1, \operatorname{deg}(b)+1) \geqslant 1 \end{aligned} $$ which contradicts $\operatorname{deg}(p)=0$. So we conclude that $(x, y)$ is not principal ideal in $\mathbb{Q}[x, y]$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_9_1_6 : Β¬ Submodule.IsPrincipal (span ({MvPolynomial.X 0, MvPolynomial.X 1} : Set (MvPolynomial (Fin 2) β„š))) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_9_3_2
Prove that if $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ are polynomials with rational coefficients whose product $f(x) g(x)$ has integer coefficients, then the product of any coefficient of $g(x)$ with any coefficient of $f(x)$ is an integer.
\begin{proof} Let $f(x), g(x) \in \mathbb{Q}[x]$ be such that $f(x) g(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$. By Gauss' Lemma there exists $r, s \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that $r f(x), s g(x) \in \mathbb{Z}[x]$, and $(r f(x))(s g(x))=r s f(x) g(x)=f(x) g(x)$. From this last relation we can conclude that $s=r^{-1}$. Therefore for any coefficient $f_i$ of $f(x)$ and $g_j$ of $g(x)$ we have that $r f_i, r^{-1} g_j \in$ $\mathbb{Z}$ and by multiplicative closure and commutativity of $\mathbb{Z}$ we have that $r f_i r^{-1} g_j=$ $f_i g_j \in \mathbb{Z}$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_9_3_2 {f g : Polynomial β„š} (i j : β„•) (hfg : βˆ€ n : β„•, βˆƒ a : β„€, (f*g).coeff = a) : βˆƒ a : β„€, f.coeff i * g.coeff j = a :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_9_4_2b
Prove that $x^6+30x^5-15x^3 + 6x-120$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.
\begin{proof} $$ x^6+30 x^5-15 x^3+6 x-120 $$ The coefficients of the low order.: $30,-15,0,6,-120$ They are divisible by the prime 3 , but $3^2=9$ doesn 't divide $-120$. So this polynomial is irreducible over $\mathbb{Z}$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_9_4_2b : Irreducible (X^6 + 30*X^5 - 15*X^3 + 6*X - 120 : Polynomial β„€) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_9_4_2d
Prove that $\frac{(x+2)^p-2^p}{x}$, where $p$ is an odd prime, is irreducible in $\mathbb{Z}[x]$.
\begin{proof} $\frac{(x+2)^p-2^p}{x} \quad \quad p$ is on add pprime $Z[x]$ $$ \frac{(x+2)^p-2^p}{x} \quad \text { as a polynomial we expand }(x+2)^p $$ $2^p$ cancels with $-2^p$, every remaining term has $x$ as $a$ factor $$ \begin{aligned} & x^{p-1}+2\left(\begin{array}{l} p \\ 1 \end{array}\right) x^{p-2}+2^2\left(\begin{array}{l} p \\ 2 \end{array}\right) x^{p-3}+\ldots+2^{p-1}\left(\begin{array}{c} p \\ p-1 \end{array}\right) \\ & 2^k\left(\begin{array}{l} p \\ k \end{array}\right) x^{p-k-1}=2^k \cdot p \cdot(p-1) \ldots(p-k-1), \quad 0<k<p \end{aligned} $$ Every lower order coef. has $p$ as a factor but doesnt have $\$ \mathrm{p}^{\wedge} 2 \$$ as a fuction so the polynomial is irreducible by Eisensteins Criterion. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_9_4_2d {p : β„•} (hp : p.Prime ∧ p > 2) {f : Polynomial β„€} (hf : f = (X + 2)^p): Irreducible (βˆ‘ n in (f.support \ {0}), (f.coeff n : Polynomial β„€) * X ^ (n-1) : Polynomial β„€) :=
Dummit-Foote|exercise_9_4_11
Prove that $x^2+y^2-1$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}[x,y]$.
\begin{proof} $$ p(x)=x^2+y^2-1 \in Q[y][x] \cong Q[y, x] $$ We have that $y+1 \in Q[y]$ is prime and $Q[y]$ is an UFD, since $p(x)=x^2+y^2-1=x^2+$ $(y+1)(y-1)$ by the Eisenstein criterion $x^2+y^2-1$ is irreducibile in $Q[x, y]$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Subgroup Set Polynomial Ideal open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_9_4_11 : Irreducible ((MvPolynomial.X 0)^2 + (MvPolynomial.X 1)^2 - 1 : MvPolynomial (Fin 2) β„š) :=
Herstein|exercise_2_1_21
Show that a group of order 5 must be abelian.
\begin{proof} Suppose $G$ is a group of order 5 which is not abelian. Then there exist two non-identity elements $a, b \in G$ such that $a * b \neq$ $b * a$. Further we see that $G$ must equal $\{e, a, b, a * b, b * a\}$. To see why $a * b$ must be distinct from all the others, not that if $a *$ $b=e$, then $a$ and $b$ are inverses and hence $a * b=b * a$. Contradiction. If $a * b=a$ (or $=b$ ), then $b=e$ (or $a=e$ ) and $e$ commutes with everything. Contradiction. We know by supposition that $a * b \neq b * a$. Hence all the elements $\{e, a, b, a * b, b * a\}$ are distinct. Now consider $a^2$. It can't equal $a$ as then $a=e$ and it can't equal $a * b$ or $b * a$ as then $b=a$. Hence either $a^2=e$ or $a^2=b$. Now consider $a * b * a$. It can't equal $a$ as then $b * a=e$ and hence $a * b=b * a$. Similarly it can't equal $b$. It also can't equal $a * b$ or $b * a$ as then $a=e$. Hence $a * b * a=e$. So then we additionally see that $a^2 \neq e$ because then $a^2=e=$ $a * b * a$ and consequently $a=b * a$ (and hence $b=e$ ). So $a^2=b$. But then $a * b=a * a^2=a^2 * a=b * a$. Contradiction. Hence starting with the assumption that there exists an order 5 abelian group $G$ leads to a contradiction. Thus there is no such group. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_1_21 (G : Type*) [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : card G = 5) : βˆ€ a b : G, a*b = b*a :=
Herstein|exercise_2_1_27
If $G$ is a finite group, prove that there is an integer $m > 0$ such that $a^m = e$ for all $a \in G$.
\begin{proof} Let $n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_k$ be the orders of all $k$ elements of $G=$ $\left\{a_1, a_2, \ldots, a_k\right\}$. Let $m=\operatorname{lcm}\left(n_1, n_2, \ldots, n_k\right)$. Then, for any $i=$ $1, \ldots, k$, there exists an integer $c$ such that $m=n_i c$. Thus $$ a_i^m=a_i^{n_i c}=\left(a_i^{n_i}\right)^c=e^c=e $$ Hence $m$ is a positive integer such that $a^m=e$ for all $a \in G$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_1_27 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] : βˆƒ (m : β„•), m > 0 ∧ βˆ€ (a : G), a ^ m = 1 :=
Herstein|exercise_2_2_5
Let $G$ be a group in which $(a b)^{3}=a^{3} b^{3}$ and $(a b)^{5}=a^{5} b^{5}$ for all $a, b \in G$. Show that $G$ is abelian.
\begin{proof} We have $$ \begin{aligned} & (a b)^3=a^3 b^3, \text { for all } a, b \in G \\ \Longrightarrow & (a b)(a b)(a b)=a\left(a^2 b^2\right) b \\ \Longrightarrow & a(b a)(b a) b=a\left(a^2 b^2\right) b \\ \Longrightarrow & (b a)^2=a^2 b^2, \text { by cancellation law. } \end{aligned} $$ Again, $$ \begin{aligned} & (a b)^5=a^5 b^5, \text { for all } a, b \in G \\ \Longrightarrow & (a b)(a b)(a b)(a b)(a b)=a\left(a^4 b^4\right) b \\ \Longrightarrow & a(b a)(b a)(b a)(b a) b=a\left(a^4 b^4\right) b \\ \Longrightarrow & (b a)^4=a^4 b^4, \text { by cancellation law. } \end{aligned} $$ Now by combining two cases we have $$ \begin{aligned} & (b a)^4=a^4 b^4 \\ \Longrightarrow & \left((b a)^2\right)^2=a^2\left(a^2 b^2\right) b^2 \\ \Longrightarrow & \left(a^2 b^2\right)^2=a^2\left(a^2 b^2\right) b^2 \\ \Longrightarrow & \left(a^2 b^2\right)\left(a^2 b^2\right)=a^2\left(a^2 b^2\right) b^2 \\ \Longrightarrow & a^2\left(b^2 a^2\right) b^2=a^2\left(a^2 b^2\right) b^2 \\ \Longrightarrow & b^2 a^2=a^2 b^2, \text { by cancellation law. } \\ \Longrightarrow & b^2 a^2=(b a)^2, \text { since }(b a)^2=a^2 b^2 \\ \Longrightarrow & b(b a) a=(b a)(b a) \\ \Longrightarrow & b(b a) a=b(a b) a \\ \Longrightarrow & b a=a b, \text { by cancellation law. } \end{aligned} $$ It follows that, $a b=b a$ for all $a, b \in G$. Hence $G$ is abelian \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_2_5 {G : Type*} [Group G] (h : βˆ€ (a b : G), (a * b) ^ 3 = a ^ 3 * b ^ 3 ∧ (a * b) ^ 5 = a ^ 5 * b ^ 5) : βˆ€ a b : G, a*b = b*a :=
Herstein|exercise_2_3_17
If $G$ is a group and $a, x \in G$, prove that $C\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=x^{-1} C(a) x$
\begin{proof} Note that $$ C(a):=\{x \in G \mid x a=a x\} . $$ Let us assume $p \in C\left(x^{-1} a x\right)$. Then, $$ \begin{aligned} & p\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=\left(x^{-1} a x\right) p \\ \Longrightarrow & \left(p x^{-1} a\right) x=x^{-1}(a x p) \\ \Longrightarrow & x\left(p x^{-1} a\right)=(a x p) x^{-1} \\ \Longrightarrow & \left(x p x^{-1}\right) a=a\left(x p x^{-1}\right) \\ \Longrightarrow & x p x^{-1} \in C(a) . \end{aligned} $$ Therefore, $$ p \in C\left(x^{-1} a x\right) \Longrightarrow x p x^{-1} \in C(a) . $$ Thus, $$ C\left(x^{-1} a x\right) \subset x^{-1} C(a) x . $$ Let us assume $$ q \in x^{-1} C(a) x . $$ Then there exists an element $y$ in $C(a)$ such that $$ q=x^{-1} y x $$ Now, $$ y \in C(a) \Longrightarrow y a=a y . $$ Also, $$ q\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=\left(x^{-1} y x\right)\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=x^{-1}(y a) x=x^{-1}(y a) x=\left(x^{-1} y x\right)\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=\left(x^{-1} y x\right) q . $$ Therefore, $$ q\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=\left(x^{-1} y x\right) q $$ So, $$ q \in C\left(x^{-1} a x\right) . $$ Consequently we have $$ x^{-1} C(a) x \subset C\left(x^{-1} a x\right) . $$ It follows from the aforesaid argument $$ C\left(x^{-1} a x\right)=x^{-1} C(a) x . $$ This completes the proof. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_3_17 {G : Type*} [Mul G] [Group G] (a x : G) : centralizer {x⁻¹*a*x} = (λ g : G => x⁻¹*g*x) '' (centralizer {a}) :=
Herstein|exercise_2_4_36
If $a > 1$ is an integer, show that $n \mid \varphi(a^n - 1)$, where $\phi$ is the Euler $\varphi$-function.
\begin{proof} Proof: We have $a>1$. First we propose to prove that $$ \operatorname{Gcd}\left(a, a^n-1\right)=1 . $$ If possible, let us assume that $\operatorname{Gcd}\left(a, a^n-1\right)=d$, where $d>1$. Then $d$ divides $a$ as well as $a^n-1$. Now, $d$ divides $a \Longrightarrow d$ divides $a^n$. This is an impossibility, since $d$ divides $a^n-1$ by our assumption. Consequently, $d$ divides 1 , which implies $d=1$. Hence we are contradict to the fact that $d>1$. Therefore $$ \operatorname{Gcd}\left(a, a^n-1\right)=1 . $$ Then $a \in U_{a^n-1}$, where $U_n$ is a group defined by $$ U_n:=\left\{\bar{a} \in \mathbb{Z}_n \mid \operatorname{Gcd}(a, n)=1\right\} . $$ We know that order of an element divides the order of the group. Here order of the group $U_{a^n-1}$ is $\phi\left(a^n-1\right)$ and $a \in U_{a^n-1}$. This follows that $\mathrm{o}(a)$ divides $\phi\left(a^n-1\right)$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_4_36 {a n : β„•} (h : a > 1) : n ∣ (a ^ n - 1).totient :=
Herstein|exercise_2_5_30
Suppose that $|G| = pm$, where $p \nmid m$ and $p$ is a prime. If $H$ is a normal subgroup of order $p$ in $G$, prove that $H$ is characteristic.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be a group of order $p m$, such that $p \nmid m$. Now, Given that $H$ is a normal subgroup of order $p$. Now we want to prove that $H$ is a characterestic subgroup, that is $\phi(H)=H$ for any automorphism $\phi$ of $G$. Now consider $\phi(H)$. Clearly $|\phi(H)|=p$. Suppose $\phi(H) \neq H$, then $H \cap \phi (H)=\{ e\}$. Consider $H \phi(H)$, this is a subgroup of $G$ as $H$ is normal. Also $|H \phi(H)|=p^2$. By lagrange's theorem then $p^2 \mid$ $p m \Longrightarrow p \mid m$ - contradiction. So $\phi(H)=H$, and $H$ is characterestic subgroup of $G$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_5_30 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] {p m : β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) (hp1 : Β¬ p ∣ m) (hG : card G = p*m) {H : Subgroup G} [Fintype H] [H.Normal] (hH : card H = p): Subgroup.Characteristic H :=
Herstein|exercise_2_5_37
If $G$ is a nonabelian group of order 6, prove that $G \simeq S_3$.
\begin{proof} Suppose $G$ is a non-abelian group of order 6 . We need to prove that $G \cong S_3$. Since $G$ is non-abelian, we conclude that there is no element of order 6. Now all the nonidentity element has order either 2 or 3 . All elements cannot be order 3 .This is because except the identity elements there are 5 elements, but order 3 elements occur in pair, that is $a, a^2$, both have order 3 , and $a \neq a^2$. So, this is a contradiction, as there are only 5 elements. So, there must be an element of order 2 . All elements of order 2 will imply that $G$ is abelian, hence there is also element of order 3 . Let $a$ be an element of order 2 , and $b$ be an element of order 3 . So we have $e, a, b, b^2$, already 4 elements. Now $a b \neq e, b, b^2$. So $a b$ is another element distinct from the ones already constructed. $a b^2 \neq e, b, a b, b^2, a$. So, we have got another element distinct from the other. So, now $ G=\left\{e, a, b, b^2, a b, a b^2\right\}$. Also, ba must be equal to one of these elements. But $b a \neq e, a, b, b^2$. Also if $b a=a b$, the group will become abelian. so $b a=a b^2$. So what we finally get is $G=\left\langle a, b \mid a^2=e=b^3, b a=a b^2\right\rangle$. Hence $G \cong S_3$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_5_37 (G : Type*) [Group G] [Fintype G] (hG : card G = 6) (hG' : IsEmpty (CommGroup G)) : Nonempty (G ≃* Equiv.Perm (Fin 3)) :=
Herstein|exercise_2_5_44
Prove that a group of order $p^2$, $p$ a prime, has a normal subgroup of order $p$.
\begin{proof} We use the result from problem 40 which is as follows: Suppose $G$ is a group, $H$ is a subgroup and $|G|=n$ and $n \nmid\left(i_G(H)\right) !$. Then there exists a normal subgroup $K \neq \{ e \}$ and $K \subseteq H$. So, we have now a group $G$ of order $p^2$. Suppose that the group is cyclic, then it is abelian and any subgroup of order $p$ is normal. Now let us suppose that $G$ is not cyclic, then there exists an element $a$ of order $p$, and $A=\langle a\rangle$. Now $i_G(A)=p$, so $p^2 \nmid p$ ! , hence by the above result there is a normal subgroup $K$, non-trivial and $K \subseteq A$. But $|A|=p$, a prime order subgroup, hence has no non-trivial subgroup, so $K=A$. so $A$ is normal subgroup. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_5_44 {G : Type*} [Group G] [Fintype G] {p : β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) (hG : card G = p^2) : βˆƒ (N : Subgroup G) (Fin : Fintype N), @card N Fin = p ∧ N.Normal :=
Herstein|exercise_2_6_15
If $G$ is an abelian group and if $G$ has an element of order $m$ and one of order $n$, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime, prove that $G$ has an element of order $mn$.
\begin{proof} Let $G$ be an abelian group, and let $a$ and $b$ be elements in $G$ of order $m$ and $n$, respectively, where $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime. We will show that the product $ab$ has order $mn$ in $G$, which will prove that $G$ has an element of order $mn$. To show that $ab$ has order $mn$, let $k$ be the order of $ab$ in $G$. We have $a^m = e$, $b^n = e$, and $(ab)^k = e$, where $e$ denotes the identity element of $G$. Since $G$ is abelian, we have $$(ab)^{mn} = a^{mn}b^{mn} = e \cdot e = e.$$ Thus, $k$ is a divisor of $mn$. Now, observe that $a^k = b^{-k}$. Since $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime, there exist integers $x$ and $y$ such that $mx + ny = 1$. Taking $kx$ on both sides of the equation, we get $a^{kx} = b^{-kx}$, or equivalently, $(a^k)^x = (b^k)^{-x}$. It follows that $a^{kx} = (a^m)^{xny} = e$, and similarly, $b^{ky} = (b^n)^{mxk} = e$. Therefore, $m$ divides $ky$ and $n$ divides $kx$. Since $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime, it follows that $mn$ divides $k$. Hence, $k = mn$, and $ab$ has order $mn$ in $G$. This completes the proof. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_6_15 {G : Type*} [CommGroup G] {m n : β„•} (hm : βˆƒ (g : G), orderOf g = m) (hn : βˆƒ (g : G), orderOf g = n) (hmn : m.Coprime n) : βˆƒ (g : G), orderOf g = m * n :=
Herstein|exercise_2_8_12
Prove that any two nonabelian groups of order 21 are isomorphic.
\begin{proof} By Cauchy's theorem we have that if $G$ is a group of order 21 then it has an element $a$ of order 3 and an element $b$ of order 7. By exercise 2.5.41 we have that the subgroup generated by $b$ is normal, so there is some $i=0,1,2,3,4,5,6$ such that $a b a^{-1}=b^i$. We know $i \neq$ 0 since that implies $a b=a$ and so that $b=e$, a contradiction, and we know $i \neq 1$ since then $a b=b a$ and this would imply $G$ is abelian, which we are assuming is not the case. Now, $a$ has order 3 so we must have $b=a^3 b a^{-3}=b^{i^3}$ mod 7 , and so $i$ is restricted by the modular equation $i^3 \equiv 1 \bmod 7$ \begin{center} \begin{tabular}{|c|c|} \hline$x$ & $x^3 \bmod 7$ \\ \hline 2 & 1 \\ \hline 3 & 6 \\ \hline 4 & 1 \\ \hline 5 & 6 \\ \hline 6 & 6 \\ \hline \end{tabular} \end{center} Therefore the only options are $i=2$ and $i=4$. Now suppose $G$ is such that $a b a^{-1}=b^2$ and let $G^{\prime}$ be another group of order 21 with an element $c$ of order 3 and an element $d$ of order 7 such that $c d c^{-1}=d^4$. We now prove that $G$ and $G^{\prime}$ are isomorphic. Define $$ \begin{aligned} \phi: G & \rightarrow G^{\prime} \\ a & \mapsto c^{-1} \\ b & \mapsto d \end{aligned} $$ since $a$ and $c^{-1}$ have the same order and $b$ and $d$ have the same order this is a well defined function. Since $$ \begin{aligned} \phi(a) \phi(b) \phi(a)^{-1} & =c^{-1} d c \\ & =\left(c d^{-1} c^{-1}\right)^{-1} \\ & =\left(d^{-4}\right)^{-1} \\ & =d^4 \\ & =\left(d^2\right)^2 \\ & =\phi(b)^2 \end{aligned} $$ $\phi$ is actually a homomorphism. For any $c^i d^j \in G^{\prime}$ we have $\phi\left(a^{-i} b^j\right)=c^i d^j$ so $\phi$ is onto and $\phi\left(a^i b^j\right)=c^{-i} d^j=e$ only if $i=j=0$, so $\phi$ is 1-to-l. Therefore $G$ and $G^{\prime}$ are isomorphic and so up to isomorphism there is only one nonabelian group of order 21 . \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_8_12 {G H : Type*} [Fintype G] [Fintype H] [Group G] [Group H] (hG : card G = 21) (hH : card H = 21) (hG1 : IsEmpty (CommGroup G)) (hH1 : IsEmpty (CommGroup H)) : Nonempty (G ≃* H) :=
Herstein|exercise_2_9_2
If $G_1$ and $G_2$ are cyclic groups of orders $m$ and $n$, respectively, prove that $G_1 \times G_2$ is cyclic if and only if $m$ and $n$ are relatively prime.
\begin{proof} The order of $G \times H$ is $n$. $m$. Thus, $G \times H$ is cyclic iff it has an element with order n. $m$. Suppose $\operatorname{gcd}(n . m)=1$. This implies that $g^m$ has order $n$, and analogously $h^n$ has order $m$. That is, $g \times h$ has order $n$. $m$, and therefore $G \times H$ is cyclic. Suppose now that $\operatorname{gcd}(n . m)>1$. Let $g^k$ be an element of $G$ and $h^j$ be an element of $H$. Since the lowest common multiple of $n$ and $m$ is lower than the product $n . m$, that is, $\operatorname{lcm}(n, m)<n$. $m$, and since $\left(g^k\right)^{l c m(n, m)}=e_G,\left(h^j\right)^{l c m(n, m)}=e_H$, we have $\left(g^k \times h^j\right)^{l c m(n, m)}=e_{G \times H}$. It follows that every element of $G \times H$ has order lower than $n . m$, and therefore $G \times H$ is not cyclic. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_9_2 {G H : Type*} [Fintype G] [Fintype H] [Group G] [Group H] (hG : IsCyclic G) (hH : IsCyclic H) : IsCyclic (G Γ— H) ↔ (card G).Coprime (card H) :=
Herstein|exercise_2_11_6
If $P$ is a $p$-Sylow subgroup of $G$ and $P \triangleleft G$, prove that $P$ is the only $p$-Sylow subgroup of $G$.
\begin{proof} let $G$ be a group and $P$ a sylow-p subgroup. Given $P$ is normal. By sylow second theorem the sylow-p subgroups are conjugate. Let $K$ be any other sylow-p subgroup. Then there exists $g \in G$ such that $K=g P g^{-1}$. But since $P$ is normal $K=g P g^{-1}=P$. Hence the sylow-p subgroup is unique. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_11_6 {G : Type*} [Group G] {p : β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) {P : Sylow p G} (hP : P.Normal) : βˆ€ (Q : Sylow p G), P = Q :=
Herstein|exercise_2_11_22
Show that any subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$ in a group $G$ of order $p^n$ is normal in $G$.
\begin{proof} Proof: First we prove the following lemma. \textbf{Lemma:} If $G$ is a finite $p$-group with $|G|>1$, then $Z(G)$, the center of $G$, has more than one element; that is, if $|G|=p^k$ with $k\geq 1$, then $|Z(G)|>1$. \textit{Proof of the lemma:} Consider the class equation $$ |G|=|Z(G)|+\sum_{a \notin Z(G)}[G: C(a)], $$ where $C(a)$ denotes the centralizer of $a$ in $G$. If $G=Z(G)$, then the lemma is immediate. Suppose $Z(G)$ is a proper subset of $G$ and consider an element $a\in G$ such that $a\notin Z(G)$. Then $C(a)$ is a proper subgroup of $G$. Since $C(a)$ is a subgroup of a $p$-group, $[G:C(a)]$ is divisible by $p$ for all $a\notin Z(G)$. This implies that $p$ divides $|G|=|Z(G)|+\sum_{a\notin Z(G)} [G:C(a)]$. Since $p$ also divides $|G|$, it follows that $p$ divides $|Z(G)|$. Hence, $|Z(G)|>1$. $\Box$ This proves our \textbf{lemma}. We will prove the result by induction on $n$. If $n=1$, the $G$ is a cyclic group of prime order and hence every subgroup of $G$ is normal in $G$. Thus, the result is true for $n=1$. Suppose the result is true for all groups of order $p^m$, where $1 \leq m<n$. Let $H$ be a subgroup of order $p^{n-1}$. Consider $N(H)=\{g \in H: g H=H g\}$. If $H \neq N(H)$, then $|N(H)|>p^{n-1}$. Thus, $|N(H)|=p^n$ and $N(H)=G$. In this case $H$ is normal in $G$. Let $H=N(H)$. Then $Z(G)$, the center of $G$, is a subset of $H$ and $Z(G) \neq$ $\{e\}$. By Cauchy's theorem and the above Claim, there exists $a \in Z(G)$ such that $o(a)=p$. Let $K=\langle a\rangle$, a cyclic group generated by $a$. Then $K$ is a normal subgroup of $G$ of order $p$. Now, $|H / K|=p^{n-2}$ and $|G / K|=p^{n-1}$. Thus, by induction hypothesis, $H / K$ is a normal subgroup of $G / K$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_11_22 {p : β„•} {n : β„•} {G : Type*} [Fintype G] [Group G] (hp : Nat.Prime p) (hG : card G = p ^ n) {K : Subgroup G} [Fintype K] (hK : card K = p ^ (n-1)) : K.Normal :=
Herstein|exercise_4_1_19
Show that there is an infinite number of solutions to $x^2 = -1$ in the quaternions.
\begin{proof} Let $x=a i+b j+c k$ then $$ x^2=(a i+b j+c k)(a i+b j+c k)=-a^2-b^2-c^2=-1 $$ This gives $a^2+b^2+c^2=1$ which has infinitely many solutions for $-1<a, b, c<1$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_1_19 : Infinite {x : Quaternion ℝ | x^2 = -1} :=
Herstein|exercise_4_2_5
Let $R$ be a ring in which $x^3 = x$ for every $x \in R$. Prove that $R$ is commutative.
\begin{proof} To begin with $$ 2 x=(2 x)^3=8 x^3=8 x . $$ Therefore $6 x=0 \quad \forall x$. Also $$ (x+y)=(x+y)^3=x^3+x^2 y+x y x+y x^2+x y^2+y x y+y^2 x+y^3 $$ and $$ (x-y)=(x-y)^3=x^3-x^2 y-x y x-y x^2+x y^2+y x y+y^2 x-y^3 $$ Subtracting we get $$ 2\left(x^2 y+x y x+y x^2\right)=0 $$ Multiply the last relation by $x$ on the left and right to get $$ 2\left(x y+x^2 y x+x y x^2\right)=0 \quad 2\left(x^2 y x+x y x^2+y x\right)=0 . $$ Subtracting the last two relations we have $$ 2(x y-y x)=0 . $$ We then show that $3\left(x+x^2\right)=0 \forall x$. You get this from $$ x+x^2=\left(x+x^2\right)^3=x^3+3 x^4+3 x^5+x^6=4\left(x+x^2\right) . $$ In particular $$ 3\left(x+y+(x+y)^2\right)=3\left(x+x^2+y+y^2+x y+y x\right)=0 $$ we end-up with $3(x y+y x)=0$. But since $6 x y=0$, we have $3(x y-y x)=0$. Then subtract $2(x y-y x)=0$ to get $x y-y x=0$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_2_5 {R : Type*} [Ring R] (h : βˆ€ x : R, x ^ 3 = x) : Nonempty (CommRing R) :=
Herstein|exercise_4_2_9
Let $p$ be an odd prime and let $1 + \frac{1}{2} + ... + \frac{1}{p - 1} = \frac{a}{b}$, where $a, b$ are integers. Show that $p \mid a$.
\begin{proof} First we prove for prime $p=3$ and then for all prime $p>3$. Let us take $p=3$. Then the sum $$ \frac{1}{1}+\frac{1}{2}+\ldots+\frac{1}{(p-1)} $$ becomes $$ 1+\frac{1}{3-1}=1+\frac{1}{2}=\frac{3}{2} . $$ Therefore in this case $\quad \frac{a}{b}=\frac{3}{2} \quad$ implies $3 \mid a$, i.e. $p \mid a$. Now for odd prime $p>3$. Let us consider $f(x)=(x-1)(x-2) \ldots(x-(p-1))$. Now, by Fermat, we know that the coefficients of $f(x)$ other than the $x^{p-1}$ and $x^0$ are divisible by $p$. So if, $$ \begin{array}{r} f(x)=x^{p-1}+\sum_{i=0}^{p-2} a_i x^i \\ \text { and } p>3 . \end{array} $$ Then $p \mid a_2$, and $$ f(p) \equiv a_1 p+a_0 \quad\left(\bmod p^3\right) $$ But we see that $$ f(x)=(-1)^{p-1} f(p-x) \text { for any } x, $$ so if $p$ is odd, $$ f(p)=f(0)=a_0, $$ So it follows that: $$ 0=f(p)-a_0 \equiv a_1 p \quad\left(\bmod p^3\right) $$ Therefore, $$ 0 \equiv a_1 \quad\left(\bmod p^2\right) . $$ Hence, $$ 0 \equiv a_1 \quad(\bmod p) . $$ Now our sum is just $\frac{a_1}{(p-1) !}=\frac{a}{b}$. It follows that $p$ divides $a$. This completes the proof. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_2_9 {p : β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) (hp1 : Odd p) : βˆ€ (a b : β„€), (a / b : β„š) = βˆ‘ i in Finset.range (p-1), (1 / (i + 1) : β„š) β†’ ↑p ∣ a :=
Herstein|exercise_4_3_25
Let $R$ be the ring of $2 \times 2$ matrices over the real numbers; suppose that $I$ is an ideal of $R$. Show that $I = (0)$ or $I = R$.
\begin{proof} Suppose that $I$ is a nontrivial ideal of $R$, and let $$ A=\left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ c & d \end{array}\right) $$ where not all of $a, b, c d$ are zero. Suppose, without loss of generality -- our steps would be completely analogous, modulo some different placement of 1 s in our matrices, if we assumed some other element to be nonzero -- that $a \neq 0$. Then we have that $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ c & d \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right) \in I $$ and so $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll} 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} a & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right) \in I $$ so that $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} x & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right) \in I $$ for any real $x$. Now, also for any real $x$, $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} x & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & x \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right) \in I . $$ Likewise $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & x \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & x \end{array}\right) \in I $$ and $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & x \end{array}\right)\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ 1 & 0 \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ x & 0 \end{array}\right) $$ Thus, as $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ c & d \end{array}\right)=\left(\begin{array}{ll} a & 0 \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & b \\ 0 & 0 \end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ c & 0 \end{array}\right)+\left(\begin{array}{ll} 0 & 0 \\ 0 & d \end{array}\right) $$ and since all the terms on the right side are in $I$ and $I$ is an additive group, it follows that $$ \left(\begin{array}{ll} a & b \\ c & d \end{array}\right) $$ for arbitrary $a, b, c, d$ is in $I$, i.e. $I=R$ Note that the intuition for picking these matrices is that, if we denote by $E_{i j}$ the matrix with 1 at position $(i, j)$ and 0 elsewhere, then $$ E_{i j}\left(\begin{array}{ll} a_{1,1} & a_{1,2} \\ a_{2,1} & a_{2,2} \end{array}\right) E_{n m}=a_{j, n} E_{i m} $$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_3_25 (I : Ideal (Matrix (Fin 2) (Fin 2) ℝ)) : I = βŠ₯ ∨ I = ⊀ :=
Herstein|exercise_4_5_16
Let $F = \mathbb{Z}_p$ be the field of integers $\mod p$, where $p$ is a prime, and let $q(x) \in F[x]$ be irreducible of degree $n$. Show that $F[x]/(q(x))$ is a field having at exactly $p^n$ elements.
\begin{proof} In the previous problem we have shown that any for any $p(x) \in F[x]$, we have that $$ p(x)+(q(x))=a_{n-1} x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_1 x+a_0+(q(x)) $$ for some $a_{n-1}, \ldots, a_0 \in F$, and that there are $p^n$ choices for these numbers, so that $F[x] /(q(x)) \leq p^n$. In order to show that equality holds, we have to show that each of these choices induces a different element of $F[x] /(q(x))$; in other words, that each different polynomial of degree $n-1$ or lower belongs to a different coset of $(q(x))$ in $F[x]$. Suppose now, then, that $$ a_{n-1} x^{n-1}+\cdots+a_1 x+a_0+(q(x))=b_{n-1} x^{n-1}+\cdots+b_1 x+b_0+(q(x)) $$ which is equivalent with $\left(a_{n-1}-b_{n-1}\right)^{n-1}+\cdots\left(a_1-b_1\right) x+\left(a_0-b_0\right) \in(q(x))$, which is in turn equivalent with there being a $w(x) \in F[x]$ such that $$ q(x) w(x)=\left(a_{n-1}-b_{n-1}\right)^{n-1}+\cdots\left(a_1-b_1\right) x+\left(a_0-b_0\right) . $$ Degree of the right hand side is strictly smaller than $n$, while the degree of the left hand side is greater or equal to $n$ except if $w(x)=0$, so that if equality is hold we must have that $w(x)=0$, but then since polynomials are equal iff all of their coefficient are equal we get that $a_{n-1}-b_{n-1}=$ $0, \ldots, a_1-b_1=0, a_0-b_0=0$, i.e. $$ a_{n-1}=b_{n-1}, \ldots, a_1=b_1, a_0=b_0 $$ which is what we needed to prove. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_16 {p n: β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) {q : Polynomial (ZMod p)} (hq : Irreducible q) (hn : q.degree = n) : (βˆƒ is_fin : Fintype $ Polynomial (ZMod p) β§Έ span ({q}), @card (Polynomial (ZMod p) β§Έ span {q}) is_fin = p ^ n) ∧ IsField (Polynomial (ZMod p) β§Έ span {q}) :=
Herstein|exercise_4_5_25
If $p$ is a prime, show that $q(x) = 1 + x + x^2 + \cdots x^{p - 1}$ is irreducible in $Q[x]$.
\begin{proof} Lemma: Let $F$ be a field and $f(x) \in F[x]$. If $c \in F$ and $f(x+c)$ is irreducible in $F[x]$, then $f(x)$ is irreducible in $F[x]$. Proof of the Lemma: Suppose that $f(x)$ is reducible, i.e., there exist non-constant $g(x), h(x) \in F[x]$ so that $$ f(x)=g(x) h(x) . $$ In particular, then we have $$ f(x+c)=g(x+c) h(x+c) . $$ Note that $g(x+c)$ and $h(x+c)$ have the same degree at $g(x)$ and $h(x)$ respectively; in particular, they are non-constant polynomials. So our assumption is wrong. Hence, $f(x)$ is irreducible in $F[x]$. This proves our Lemma. Now recall the identity $$ \frac{x^p-1}{x-1}=x^{p-1}+x^{p-2}+\ldots \ldots+x^2+x+1 . $$ We prove that $f(x+1)$ is $\$$ |textbffirreducible in $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ and then apply the Lemma to conclude that $f(x)$ is irreducible in $\mathbb{Q}[x] .3 \$$ Note that $$ \begin{aligned} & f(x+1)=\frac{(x+1)^p-1}{x} \\ & =\frac{x^p+p x^{p-1}+\ldots+p x}{x} \\ & =x^{p-1}+p x^{p-2}+\ldots .+p . \end{aligned} $$ Using that the binomial coefficients occurring above are all divisible by $p$, we have that $f(x+1)$ is irreducible $\mathbb{Q}[x]$ by Eisenstein's criterion applied with prime $p$. Then by the lemma $f(x)$ is irreducible $\mathbb{Q}[x]$. This completes the proof. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_5_25 {p : β„•} (hp : Nat.Prime p) : Irreducible (βˆ‘ i in Finset.range p, X ^ i : Polynomial β„š) :=
Herstein|exercise_4_6_3
Show that there is an infinite number of integers a such that $f(x) = x^7 + 15x^2 - 30x + a$ is irreducible in $Q[x]$.
\begin{proof} Via Eisenstein's criterion and observation that 5 divides 15 and $-30$, it is sufficient to find infinitely many $a$ such that 5 divides $a$, but $5^2=25$ doesn't divide $a$. For example $5 \cdot 2^k$ for $k=0,1, \ldots$ is one such infinite sequence. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_4_6_3 : Infinite {a : β„€ | Irreducible (X^7 + 15*X^2 - 30*X + (a : Polynomial β„š) : Polynomial β„š)} :=
Herstein|exercise_5_2_20
Let $V$ be a vector space over an infinite field $F$. Show that $V$ cannot be the set-theoretic union of a finite number of proper subspaces of $V$.
\begin{proof} Assume that $V$ can be written as the set-theoretic union of $n$ proper subspaces $U_1, U_2, \ldots, U_n$. Without loss of generality, we may assume that no $U_i$ is contained in the union of other subspaces. Let $u \in U_i$ but $u \notin \bigcup_{j \neq i} U_j$ and $v \notin U_i$. Then, we have $(v + Fu) \cap U_i = \varnothing$, and $(v + Fu) \cap U_j$ for $j \neq i$ contains at most one vector, since otherwise $U_j$ would contain $u$. Therefore, we have $|v + Fu| \leq |F| \leq n-1$. However, since $n$ is a finite natural number, this contradicts the fact that the field $F$ is finite. Thus, our assumption that $V$ can be written as the set-theoretic union of proper subspaces is wrong, and the claim is proven. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_2_20 {F V ΞΉ: Type*} [Infinite F] [Field F] [AddCommGroup V] [Module F V] [Finite ΞΉ] {u : ΞΉ β†’ Submodule F V} (hu : βˆ€ i : ΞΉ, u i β‰  ⊀) : (⋃ i : ΞΉ, (u i : Set V)) β‰  ⊀ :=
Herstein|exercise_5_3_10
Prove that $\cos 1^{\circ}$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}$.
\begin{proof} Since $\left(\cos \left(1^{\circ}\right)+i \sin \left(1^{\circ}\right)\right)^{360}=1$, the number $\cos \left(1^{\circ}\right)+i \sin \left(1^{\circ}\right)$ is algebraic. And the real part and the imaginary part of an algebraic number are always algebraic numbers. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_3_10 : IsAlgebraic β„š (cos (Real.pi / 180)) :=
Herstein|exercise_5_5_2
Prove that $x^3 - 3x - 1$ is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$.
\begin{proof} Let $p(x)=x^3-3 x-1$. Then $$ p(x+1)=(x+1)^3-3(x+1)-1=x^3+3 x^2-3 $$ We have $3|3,3| 0$ but $3 \nmid 1$ and $3^2 \nmid 3$. Thus the polynomial is irreducible over $\mathbb{Q}$ by 3 -Eisenstein criterion. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Fintype Set Real Ideal Polynomial open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_5_5_2 : Irreducible (X^3 - 3*X - 1 : Polynomial β„š) :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_1_27
For all odd $n$ show that $8 \mid n^{2}-1$.
\begin{proof} We have $n^2-1=(n+1)(n-1)$. Since $n$ is odd, both $n+1, n-1$ are even, and moreso, one of these must be divisible by 4 , as one of the two consecutive odd numbers is divisible by 4 . Thus, their product is divisible by 8 . Similarly, if 3 does not divide $n$, it must divide one of $n-1, n+1$, otherwise it wouldn't divide three consecutive integers, which is impossible. As $n$ is odd, $n+1$ is even, so $(n+1)(n-1)$ is divisible by both 2 and 3 , so it is divisible by 6 . \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_27 {n : β„•} (hn : Odd n) : 8 ∣ (n^2 - 1) :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_1_31
Show that 2 is divisible by $(1+i)^{2}$ in $\mathbb{Z}[i]$.
\begin{proof} We have $(1+i)^2=1+2 i-1=2 i$, so $2=-i(1+i)^2$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_1_31 : (⟨1, 1⟩ : GaussianInt) ^ 2 ∣ 2 :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_2_21
Define $\wedge(n)=\log p$ if $n$ is a power of $p$ and zero otherwise. Prove that $\sum_{A \mid n} \mu(n / d) \log d$ $=\wedge(n)$.
\begin{proof} $$ \left\{ \begin{array}{cccl} \land(n)& = & \log p & \mathrm{if}\ n =p^\alpha,\ \alpha \in \mathbb{N}^* \\ & = & 0 & \mathrm{otherwise }. \end{array} \right. $$ Let $n = p_1^{\alpha_1}\cdots p_t^{\alpha_t}$ the decomposition of $n$ in prime factors. As $\land(d) = 0$ for all divisors of $n$, except for $d = p_j^i, i>0, j=1,\ldots t$, \begin{align*} \sum_{d \mid n} \land(d)&= \sum_{i=1}^{\alpha_1} \land(p_1^{i}) + \cdots+ \sum_{i=1}^{\alpha_t} \land(p_t^{i})\\ &= \alpha_1 \log p_1+\cdots + \alpha_t \log p_t\\ &= \log n \end{align*} By Mobius Inversion Theorem, $$\land(n) = \sum_{d \mid n} \mu\left (\frac{n}{d}\right ) \log d.$$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_2_21 {l : β„• β†’ ℝ} (hl : βˆ€ p n : β„•, p.Prime β†’ l (p^n) = log p ) (hl1 : βˆ€ m : β„•, Β¬ IsPrimePow m β†’ l m = 0) : l = Ξ» n => βˆ‘ d : Nat.divisors n, ArithmeticFunction.moebius (n/d) * log d :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_3_1
Show that there are infinitely many primes congruent to $-1$ modulo 6 .
\begin{proof} Let $n$ any integer such that $n\geq 3$, and $N = n! -1 = 2 \times 3 \times\cdots\times n - 1 >1$. Then $N \equiv -1 \pmod 6$. As $6k +2, 6k +3, 6k +4$ are composite for all integers $k$, every prime factor of $N$ is congruent to $1$ or $-1$ modulo $6$. If every prime factor of $N$ was congruent to 1, then $N \equiv 1 \pmod 6$ : this is a contradiction because $-1 \not \equiv 1 \pmod 6$. So there exists a prime factor $p$ of $N$ such that $p\equiv -1 \pmod 6$. If $p\leq n$, then $p \mid n!$, and $p \mid N = n!-1$, so $p \mid 1$. As $p$ is prime, this is a contradiction, so $p>n$. Conclusion : for any integer $n$, there exists a prime $p >n$ such that $p \equiv -1 \pmod 6$ : there are infinitely many primes congruent to $-1$ modulo $6$. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_1 : Infinite {p : Nat.Primes // p ≑ -1 [ZMOD 6]} :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_3_5
Show that the equation $7 x^{3}+2=y^{3}$ has no solution in integers.
\begin{proof} If $7x^2 + 2 = y^3,\ x,y \in \mathbb{Z}$, then $y^3 \equiv 2 \pmod 7$ (so $y \not \equiv 0 \pmod 7$) From Fermat's Little Theorem, $y^6 \equiv 1 \pmod 7$, so $2^2 \equiv y^6 \equiv 1 \pmod 7$, which implies $7 \mid 2^2-1 = 3$ : this is a contradiction. Thus the equation $7x^2 + 2 = y^3$ has no solution in integers. \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_5 : Β¬ βˆƒ x y : β„€, 7*x^3 + 2 = y^3 :=
Ireland-Rosen|exercise_3_14
Let $p$ and $q$ be distinct odd primes such that $p-1$ divides $q-1$. If $(n, p q)=1$, show that $n^{q-1} \equiv 1(p q)$.
\begin{proof} As $n \wedge pq = 1, n\wedge p=1, n \wedge q = 1$, so from Fermat's Little Theorem $$n^{q-1} \equiv 1 \pmod q,\qquad n^{p-1} \equiv 1 \pmod p.$$ $p-1 \mid q-1$, so there exists $k \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $q-1 = k(p-1)$. Thus $$n^{q-1} = (n^{p-1})^k \equiv 1 \pmod p.$$ $p \mid n^{q-1} - 1, q \mid n^{q-1} - 1$, and $p\wedge q = 1$, so $pq \mid n^{q-1} - 1$ : $$n^{q-1} \equiv 1 \pmod{pq}.$$ \end{proof}
import Mathlib open Real open scoped BigOperators
theorem exercise_3_14 {p q n : β„•} (hp0 : p.Prime ∧ p > 2) (hq0 : q.Prime ∧ q > 2) (hpq0 : p β‰  q) (hpq1 : p - 1 ∣ q - 1) (hn : n.gcd (p*q) = 1) : n^(q-1) ≑ 1 [MOD p*q] :=